Can someone help me prove that $$X \times (Y \times Z) \sim (X \times Y) \times Z$$ I know that there is supposed to be a bijection between these two. The first one will contain elements like $(x, (y, z))$ and the second one $((x, y) z)$. I just need some instructions, I believe I can manage on my own from that.
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$$X \times (Y \times Z) = \{(x,(y,z)) \mid x \in X, y \in Y, z \in Z\}$$ $$ (X \times Y) \times Z = \{ ((x,y),z) \mid x \in X, y \in Y, z \in Z \}$$
So consider the maps $(x,(y,z)) \mapsto ((x,y),z)$ and $((x,y),z) \mapsto (x,(y,z))$. One immediately verifies that these are indeed functions and they are clearly inverses, thus bijections.
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**bold formatting**– Jan 09 '16 at 17:54