The eighth harmonic number happens to be close to $e$.
$$e\approx2.71(8)$$
$$H_8=\sum_{k=1}^8 \frac{1}{k}=\frac{761}{280}\approx2.71(7)$$
This leads to the almost-integer
$$\frac{e}{H_8}\approx1.0001562$$
Some improvement may be obtained as follows.
$$e=H_8\left(1+\frac{1}{a}\right)$$
$$a\approx6399.69\approx80^2$$
Therefore
$$e\approx H_8\left(1+\frac{1}{80^2}\right)\approx 2.7182818(0)$$ http://mathworld.wolfram.com/eApproximations.html
Equivalently $$ \frac{e}{H_8\left(1+\frac{1}{80^2}\right)} \approx 1.00000000751$$
Q: How can this approximation be obtained from a series?
EDIT: After applying the approximation $$H_n\approx \log(2n+1)$$ (https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1602945/134791) to $$e \approx H_8$$
the following is obtained: $$ e - \gamma-\log\left(\frac{17}{2}\right) \approx 0.0010000000612416$$ $$ e \approx \gamma+\log\left(\frac{17}{2}\right) +\frac{1}{10^3} +6.12416·10^{-11}$$
The second one can be obtained from the first one, but the reverse is not true.
Another example is Noam Elkies' "Why $\pi^2$ is so close to 10" http://www.math.harvard.edu/~elkies/Misc/pi10.pdf
Even if there is no known series to explain this today, can we be sure that this kind of observations is of no use for finding one?
– Jaume Oliver Lafont Jan 11 '16 at 09:00$$ \frac{1}{14} \int_{0}^1 x^2(1-x)^2e^xdx = e- \frac{19}{7} \approx 0$$
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/269707353_Pancake_Functions
– Jaume Oliver Lafont Mar 22 '16 at 00:04http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=int_0%5E1+x%5E2(1-x)%5E2(e%5Ex%2F14-2(x%5E2(1-x)%5E2)%2F(1%2Bx%5E2))dx
– Jaume Oliver Lafont Mar 22 '16 at 00:25