The other answers are pretty good, but I wanted to resurrect this 8-year-old post to point out that your usage of the term "probability" that white will win is too vague to be worked with, which is why the other answers waffle a bit.
Since this is a math exchange post, we can discuss that issue formally. The crux of the problem with your question is that your usage of the term "probability" implies a probability space. This is a triplet, say $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, P),$ where $\Omega$ is the set of outcomes, $\mathcal{F}$ is a $\sigma$-algebra on $\Omega$ for which probabilities are defined, and $P$ is a probability measure assigning probabilities to elements of $F$. (You can learn more about these by studying Kolmogorov's axioms of probability.) Once we specify a probability space, we can answer the terminology question more precisely.
I'll enumerate what I see as possible probability spaces to frame your question. We'll assume a game with a finite game tree, like chess, so we can ignore $\Omega$ and $\mathcal{F}$ (since we'll take $\Omega$ to be the set of all possible game endings and $\mathcal{F}$ to be the power set, $2^\Omega$) and focus on defining $P$. That way, once we have $P$, we can compute the "probability that white wins" as $\mathbb{E}_P[\mathbb{1}\{\text{white wins}\}].$
We'll also assume that the game is deterministic (no element of chance like poker has), with no hidden information, like battleship has.
- All games are equally likely--$P(\omega) = \frac{1}{|\Omega|}, \forall \omega \in \Omega$. This is the most basic interpretation of how to assign chess games a probability. It's more or less equivalent to saying, what are the odds white wins if both players play randomly?
For chess, this is not known, but it's also not very interesting, because we assume the players are not just playing randomly. If white wins 99% of games when they play randomly but black can force a win by playing intelligently, the practical chance white wins is 0 once black knows the winning strategy. This is what Mark S. is getting at in part of his answer:
Consider a game in which Black selects "B" or "W" and White selects "1" or "2", and the letter Black chose determines the winner. Certainly Black wins 2 of the 4 possible games, but this game is very unfair since black can win easily. If you seat to include games like this, I doubt there's a name for this.
So there is no terminology for a game where white wins in exactly 50% of the leaf nodes of a game tree.
- If we assume players move at least somewhat intelligently, then we can define $P$ to allocate more probability mass to games that would actually happen between two humans. This distribution could only be estimated by looking at large databases of human games as an approximation for all possible human games.
In this case, we might colloquially call the game fair if the expectation above is 0.5, or, in other words, if white wins in half of all realistic games between two humans. If I have the sense that as an average person, I go into a game with a 50% chance to win against an average opponent, it feels fair to me.
But only to me. What if win ratios differ with skill levels? Or between different opponents? Or over time? In chess, we see a phenomenon where black and white are quite equal for average players, but white is increasingly better than black as ratings rise. In some sense, we feel that the better a player is at the game, the more qualified they are to say if it is fair or unfair as a whole, rather than to them personally. This leads to
- A scenario where we weight games by how likely they are to occur between two perfect opponents. Since the games are fully determined and perfectly known by the players, there is a very limited set of games that could occur, and they will all share the same outcome. If white can force a win, they will never choose not to, and the same for black; but if draws are possible and the otherwise losing player can force one, they will do that every time. So, the "probability that white wins" is either 100% or 0%, depending on the game.
A game with a 100% chance of one player winning with perfect play is called unfair, while a game where players can force a draw is called futile or else fair. This dilemma between futility and unfairness is exactly what makes tic-tac-toe uninteresting. It would make chess, go, etc. uninteresting as well, except that the game trees are so large that perfect play is next to impossible, simulating an element of randomness where none exists--because, in the end, the only way a game can be fair and still have a winner is by incorporating an element of randomness. Ironically, games with randomness often prompt players to call the game unfair anyway, but in a different sense--the game is unfair to all players, rather than favoring one player over another.
TL;DR: If you specify your question more thoroughly, it can be answered more precisely. Anyway, thanks for an interesting question, math stack exchange rando from 2016 ;)