Your idea of using a comparison is a good one, however, the comparison $$e^{\frac{1}n}-1>-1$$
is not particularly helpful, since the sum over $-1$ diverges to $-\infty$, so the comparison doesn't actually tell us anything. A more useful comparison would be
$$e^{\frac{1}n}-1>\frac{1}n$$
since $e^x=1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^3}{3!}+\ldots$ and if $x$ is positive, this is just $1+x+\text{positive terms}$ so $e^x>1+x$.
In general, notice that $f(x)=e^x-1$ is a function which has $f(0)=0$ and $f'(0)\neq 0$. One can use the bounds provided by the derivative to show that $\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}f(a_i)$ converges absolutely exactly when $\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}a_i$ converges absolutely.