I wrote this question from Hungerford's introduction abstract p.33 algebra
Theorem 2.8: If $G$ is a group and $X$ is a nonempty subset of $G$ then the subgroup $\langle X\rangle$ consists of all finite products $ a_{1}^{n_{1}}a_{2}^{n_{2}}\cdots a_{t}^{n_{t}}|(a_{i} \in X;n_{i} \in \mathbb{Z})$. In particular for every $ a\in G$, $$\langle a\rangle=\{a^{n}|n \in \mathbb{Z}\}$$
I can't show this.I know $\langle X\rangle=\bigcap_{i \in I}H_i,$ where $\{H_{i}|i\in I\}$ is family of all subgroups of $G$ which contain $X$. Therefore we can easily see $$\{ a_{1}^{n_{1}}a_{2}^{n_{2}}\cdots a_{t}^{n_{t}}|(a_{i} \in X;n_{i} \in \mathbb{Z})\}\subseteq \langle X\rangle$$
How can we show converse direction?
What is the meaning of this theorem? For example: $\mathbb Z\setminus \{0\}$ is a subset of $\mathbb Q\setminus \{0\}$ and $\mathbb Q\setminus \{0\}$ is a subset of $\mathbb R\setminus \{0\}$. How can we find set $\bigcap_{i \in I}H_i $ for those examples?
If we think group as a additive group, Then how do we determine the above concept?