I've been reading up on some Analysis for my comp exams, and I couldn't find in my texts a proof of $L^\infty$ being Banach. Someone pointed me to the following exercise in Royden & Fitzpatrick. Now, I've found other proofs of $L^\infty$ being Banach online, but this problem is now really bothering me:
Let ${f_n}$ be a sequence in $L^\infty(E)$ and $\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ a convergent series of positive numbers such that $||f_{k+1}-f_k||_\infty \leq a_k$ for all $k$.
Then, $\exists$ a subset $E_0$ of $E$ of measure zero and
$|f_{n+k}(x)-f_k(x)|\leq||f_{n+k}-f_k||_\infty \leq \sum_{j=n}^\infty a_j$ for all $k,n$ and all $x\in E$~$E_0$
a) Conclude that there is a function $f\in L^\infty(E)$ such that ${f_n}$->$f$ uniformly on $E$~$E_0$. b) Now, show that $L^\infty(E)$ is a Banach space.
ATTEMPT:
Thanks to the comments. The first part of the inequality:
$|f_{n+k}(x)-f_k(x)|\leq||f_{n+k}-f_k||_\infty \leq \sum_{j=n}^\infty a_j$
is immediate from the definition of the sup norm (keeping in mind that Lp spaces are really equivalence classes where equality means values coincide a.e.) and the second part is obvious by summing up the left and right-hand sides of the given inequality.
Now, does this inequality give me uniform convergence with any indices $l,q>n$ and $\epsilon = \sum_{j=n}^\infty a_j $?
If so, why does all this give me b), that $L^\infty$ is complete?
Any help is much appreciated.
Do you have any idea why both of these are bounded by the sum $\sum_{j=1}^\infty a_j$? Or why this forces the existence of a function in $L^\infty$ that this sequence ${f_n}$ converges to uniformly?
– Mike Dec 13 '15 at 22:08I'll correct it.
– Mike Dec 13 '15 at 22:35