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Without using a calculator.

I can see that $\ln \pi$ is close to $1$ but a little bit greater... Since $e$ is less than $\pi$, $\frac{1}{e}$ has to be a larger number. I don't understand how someone could know $\ln \pi$ though without using a calculator?

I also then have to prove why $e^\pi > \pi^e$.

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The function $f(x)=\frac{\ln x}{x}$ goes from $-\infty$ to $0$ and its only maximun is given by $f(e)=\frac 1e$ (because $f'(x)=\frac{1-\ln x}{x^2}$) so $f$ is increasing on the interval $]0,e[$ and decreasing on $]e,\infty[$.

On the other hand $\frac{1}{e} > \frac{\ln \pi}{\pi}\iff \frac{\ln e}{e} > \frac{\ln \pi}{\pi}$ and since $e<\pi$ we finish because of the interval where $f$ is decreasing.

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