Let $R$ be a ring with two-sided ideals $I,J$. The proof of the "absolute" chinese remainder theorem revolves around the fact that if $I,J$ cover $R$ in the lattice of ideals, i.e $I+J=R$, then the canonical map $R/(I\cap J)\rightarrow R/I\times R/J$ is an isomorphism.
The "relative" version says that given any ideals $I,J$, the canonical map $R/(I\cap J)\rightarrow R/I\times _{R/(I+J)} R/J$ is an isomorphism. Evidently if $I,J$ cover $R$ the quotient $R/(I+J)$ is the terminal object and we collapse into the "absolute" version. This relative version seems more natural, so I'm trying to understand it better.
In the lattice of ideals, as in any lattice, the square below is both a pullback and a pushout. $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} I\cap J @>>> I\\ @VVV @VVV\\ J @>>> I+J \end{CD}$$ The relative version then tells us the square below is a pullback. $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} R/(I\cap J) @>>> R/I\\ @VVV @VVV\\ R/J @>>> R/(I+J) \end{CD}$$ Is there some easy way to get this from the correspondence theorem for ideals?
I think the bottom square is the image of the top square by the functor taking an inclusion $I\subset J$ to the map $R/I\rightarrow R/J$ defined by $r+I\mapsto r+J$. Denote by $\mathcal L(R)$ lattice of ideals. This functor seems to be the cokernel over the subcategory of $\mathcal L(R)\downarrow R$ generated by inclusions of ideals. Hence this functor only preserves pushouts. So the bottom square is also a pushout, and the content of the relative version is that this pushout square is also a pullback. Is this at all correct?