If $U$ and $V$ are independent standard normal (that is, $(N(0,1)$) random variables, then
$\sigma_1U \sim N(0,\sigma_1^2)$ and $\sigma_2V\sim N(0,\sigma_2^2)$, and
this answer contains
a short proof (no explicit integrations, no convolutions, no MGFs or
characteristic functions; only the
left half of the hint given in the problem) of the fact that
$\sigma_1U+\sigma_2V\sim N(0,\sigma_1^2+\sigma_2^2)$.
Now extend this result to
the sum of $X = \mu_1+\sigma_1U \sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2)$ and
$Y = \mu_X+\sigma_2V\sim N(\mu_2,\sigma_2^2)$