In the interest of housekeeping, I recently took a look at what what polylogarithm integrals are still in the unanswered questions list. Some of those questions have probably languished there because the solutions methods are presumably too tedious and too similar to previously answered questions make carrying out a solution worth while.
A few of the integrals with products of four or more logarithms in the numerator gave more trouble than I anticipated. After playing around with substitutions/integration-by-parts/et-cetera, it seems each the unsolved integrals I looked at can be boiled down to the following integral:
For $\left|z\right|\le1$, define $\mathcal{I}{\left(z\right)}$ via the integral representation $$\mathcal{I}{\left(z\right)}:=-\frac16\int_{0}^{z}\frac{\ln^{3}{\left(1-x\right)}\ln{\left(1+x\right)}}{x}\,\mathrm{d}x.\tag{1}$$
Question: Can integral $(1)$ be evaluated in terms of polylogarithms?
Notes: My best idea for a place to begin was to somehow reduce the integral to one with a single fourth-power logarithm in the numerator so as to make subsequent substitutions less of a hassle. I succeeded in reducing $\mathcal{I}{\left(z\right)}$ to the following integral:
$$J_{1}{\left(z\right)}=\int_{0}^{z}\frac{\ln^{4}{\left(\frac{1-y}{\left(1+y\right)^2}\right)}}{y}\,\mathrm{d}y.\tag{2}$$
Everything I've tried after that doesn't appear to be going anywhere though. Can somebody perhaps help me out?
Thanks.