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I had to prove on a test that if $R$ is a PID then every surjective endomorphism of $R$ is an injection. To do this, I supposed there was a surjective endomorphism $\varphi:R\to R$. Then $$R/\ker\varphi\cong R$$

and I had to use the fact that $R$ is a PID to show $\ker\varphi=\{0\}$. Prior to this test, I would have assumed this implied a zero kernel regardless if $R$ were a PID or not. Therefore

I'm wondering if anybody has an example of a ring $R$ and a nontrivial ideal $I$ such that $R/I\cong R$?

user26857
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Alex Mathers
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1 Answers1

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Let $R_0$ be any ring and let $R=R_0[x_1,x_2,x_3,\dots]$ be a polynomial ring over $R_0$ in infinitely many variables. Then $R/I\cong R$, where $I=(x_1)$ (since $R/I=R_0[x_2,x_3,\dots]$, and you can just shift the variables over by one to get an isomorphism with $R$). There are many other similar examples. For instance, you could take a product $R=R_0^\mathbb{N}$ of infinitely many copies of $R_0$, and let $I$ be the ideal generated by $(1,0,0,0,\dots)\in R$.

Eric Wofsey
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