If $f'(x)$ is decreasing, is it always true that $f''(x)$ is also decreasing?
I want to make sure I understand this concept thoroughly.
Thanks.
If $f'(x)$ is decreasing, is it always true that $f''(x)$ is also decreasing?
I want to make sure I understand this concept thoroughly.
Thanks.
Forget $f$ for a second and ask a different question: If a function $g$ is decreasing, does that mean that $g'$ is decreasing as well? Now replace $g$ with $f'$, and you have your answer.
Plot $f(x)=\sin(x)$. Find $f'(x),f''(x)$.
What can you infer about the question analysing $f''(x),f'(x)$ between $\left[\frac\pi2,\pi\right]$?
Geogebra easily calculates derivatives (just input $f'(x)$ or $f''(x)$ after defining $f$), pick random functions, experiment for yourself and see.