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As the title asks, what is $\sin(\cos(x))$. I want it to be reduced more, if possible. I don't know where to start. I could manipulate the expression in many ways, but none allow me to remove either the $\sin$ or $\cos$. For example:$$\sin(\cos(x))=\sqrt{1-(\cos(\cos(x))^2}$$

Then I'd need to know what $\cos(\cos(x))$ is. Anyways, I want to know if this is solvable such that I don't have a trig function inside another trig function, and a solution if one such exists.

K_user
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    normally in engineering, sin or cos in another sin or cos has no practical application. But theoretically you can use it, however forget the conceptual view anymore. – ar2015 Nov 26 '15 at 02:34
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    Well, for all practical purposes the answer is "no, it's not possible to make that not have nested trig function" unless you're willing to trade that for infinite series. – Milo Brandt Nov 26 '15 at 02:34
  • How do you want to express it? –  Nov 26 '15 at 02:35
  • $\frac12 i e^{-\frac12 i (e^{-i x}+e^{i x})}-\frac12 i e^{\frac12 i (e^{-i x}+e^{i x})}$ – Rocket Man Nov 26 '15 at 02:36
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    It appears to be very close to $(\sin(1)) \cdot \cos x$, but not exactly – Rob Nov 26 '15 at 02:36
  • I don't think there's any (good) way to express this without embedded trig functions. I think the most meaningful thing you can say is that, for a given angle, $\cos$ turns it into the adjacent length in the relevant triangle, and then we put that length into $\sin$ as if it were an angle. But that's pretty meaningless. – Addem Nov 26 '15 at 02:41
  • When you say a solution, do you mean solving $\sin (\cos x)=0$? If so this would be equivalent to solving $\cos x = n\pi$. – Addem Nov 26 '15 at 02:42
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    You could expand it in a power series. That would give you a good way to approximate it to whatever accuracy you like. A power series around $x=0$ has a bunch of $\sin(1)$'s and $\cos(1)$'s which are hard to evaluate but at $x=\pi/2$ the power series expansion is $-(x-\pi/2)+(1/3)(x-\pi/2)^3-(1/10)(x-\pi/2)^5 +\cdots$. – user293378 Nov 26 '15 at 02:49
  • The graph of sin(cos x) looks very much like an ordinary sine wave... is that an illusion? – Yan King Yin Sep 15 '23 at 07:53

3 Answers3

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As already said in comments and answers, you cannot do much with embedded trigonometirc functions except developing as Taylor series.

Built around $x=0$ (remember that, for any $x$, $|\cos(x)| \leq 1$), you should get

$$\sin(\cos(x))=\sin (1)-\frac{1}{2} x^2 \cos (1)+x^4 \left(\frac{\cos (1)}{24}-\frac{\sin (1)}{8}\right)+x^6 \left(\frac{\sin (1)}{48}+\frac{7 \cos (1)}{360}\right)+x^8 \left(\frac{\sin (1)}{960}-\frac{209 \cos (1)}{40320}\right)+x^{10} \left(\frac{1259 \cos (1)}{3628800}-\frac{193 \sin (1)}{241920}\right)+O\left(x^{11}\right)$$

$$\cos(\cos(x))=\cos (1)+\frac{1}{2} x^2 \sin (1)-x^4 \left(\frac{\sin (1)}{24}+\frac{\cos (1)}{8}\right)+x^6 \left(\frac{\cos (1)}{48}-\frac{7 \sin (1)}{360}\right)+x^8 \left(\frac{209 \sin (1)}{40320}+\frac{\cos (1)}{960}\right)-x^{10} \left(\frac{1259 \sin (1)}{3628800}+\frac{193 \cos (1)}{241920}\right)+O\left(x^{11}\right)$$

  • One might also be inclined to take a Fourier series, given that $\sin(\cos(x))$ is periodic. I just suggest this since that's a little more natural for a periodic function than Taylor expansion (though the coefficients are harder to compute; Mathematica insists they have a closed form in terms of the Bessel function though) – Milo Brandt Nov 26 '15 at 04:14
  • @MiloBrandt. I totally agree with you ! – Claude Leibovici Nov 26 '15 at 04:18
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Rationalizing $\cos (x)$ in function of $\tan (x/2)=t$ you have $\cos (x)=\frac {1-t^2}{1+t^2}$ hence $\sin(\cos (x))=\sin(\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2})$ and you can if you want to developpe as Taylor series this last expression.

Piquito
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  • This is a good idea, indeed ! $+1$ – Claude Leibovici Nov 26 '15 at 15:24
  • You are very welcome. This leads to nice Taylor series $$\sin(\cos (x))=\sin (1)-2 t^2 \cos (1)+t^4 (2 \cos (1)-2 \sin (1))+t^6 \left(4 \sin (1)-\frac{2 \cos (1)}{3}\right)+O\left(t^7\right)$$ $$\cos(\cos (x))=\cos (1)+2 t^2 \sin (1)-2 t^4 (\sin (1)+\cos (1))+t^6 \left(\frac{2 \sin (1)}{3}+4 \cos (1)\right)+O\left(t^7\right)$$ – Claude Leibovici Nov 26 '15 at 16:52
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I want it to be reduced more, if possible.

Not possible.

I want to know if this is solvable such that I don't have a trig function inside another trig function, and a solution if one such exists.

Not “solvable”, and no such simplified solution exists.


The only remotely interesting thing I can come up with concerning this topic is that $$\int_0^\tfrac\pi2\sin(\sin x)~dx~=~\int_0^\tfrac\pi2\sin(\cos x)~dx~=~\frac\pi2~H_0(1),$$ and $$\int_0^\tfrac\pi2\cos(\cos x)~dx~=~\int_0^\tfrac\pi2\cos(\sin x)~dx~=~\frac\pi2~J_0(1).$$ See Bessel and Struve functions for more information.

Lucian
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