Let $f:A\subset\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ be Riemann integrable on $A$. If $B\subset A$ does the Riemann integral$$\int_B f(x_1,\ldots,x_n)dx_1\ldots dx_n$$exist finite and, if it does, how can it be proved?
I think a hint may come from a particular case that I find here where it is said that, at least in the particular case where $A=[a,b]\subset\mathbb{R}$ and $B=[a',b']\subset [a,b]$, since $\int_A f(x_1,\ldots,x_n)dx_1\ldots dx_n$ and $\int_A \chi_B(x_1,\ldots,x_n)dx_1\ldots dx_n$ exist, then $\int_A \chi_B(x_1,\ldots,x_n)f(x_1,\ldots,x_n)dx_1\ldots dx_n$ also does and, by definition, is identical to $\int_B f(x_1,\ldots,x_n)dx_1\ldots dx_n$. Nevertheless, I am not sure whether these considerations are true for $B\subset A\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ with $n\ge 2$ and, if they are, I would have to know how to prove that the product of two Riemann integrable functions is Riemann integrable. As a side note, I would not be able to understand a proof based on Lebesgue integration because I have no knowledge of how Riemann and Lebesgue integrals are related if $n>1$. I heartily thank any answerer!