I'm not expert in logic, but as far as I know, quantifiers comes before the predicates they refer to. Still, if written in english, there are statements which sounds better when you don't put all the quantifiers before. For example, the definition of a sequence of functions $f_n:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ converging uniformly to some function $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$:
For all $\varepsilon > 0$, exists $n_0\in\mathbb{N}\ $ such that $\ n>n_0 \implies |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \varepsilon$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$
I have seen teachers writing this as
$$\forall\varepsilon > 0,\ \ \exists n_0\in\mathbb{R}\ \ \text{ such that } \ \ n>n_0 \implies |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \varepsilon,\ \ \forall x\in\mathbb{R}$$
Maybe an even more simple example, from probability. It's not hard to find something like
$$P[X_n=Y_n, \forall n\in\mathbb{N}]$$
where $(X_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ and $(Y_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ are collection of random variables.
I understand the motivation: if you talk about this probability, you probably will say the probability of have $X_n=Y_n$ for all $n$, and not the probability of, for all $n$, have $X_n=Y_n$. The same reasoning applies for the statement about uniform convergence. That last for all quantifier will fit better at the final of the sentence if you have to say it in words.
So my question is: are this "informal" formulas just wrong (in the formal logic point of view)? Or the formal language of logic can handle this kind of writing?
Thanks.