EDIT: Please see my attempt below at a proof to show the answer is $log2$
Let $$\alpha = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{j=1}^n \frac {(-1)^{j+1}}{j}$$
Part (1): Show that $\alpha$ exists.
Part (2): Show that $\alpha = log2$.
My work:
$\alpha$ exists, by the alternating series test - simple enough. But how can I get started on part(2)?
Proof:
Start with $log(1+x)$. Rewrite it as
$$log(1+x) = \int \frac{1}{1+x}dx$$
Should there be a constant, c, added to the L.H.S.? Or, should I look to make the R.H.S. a definite integral instead?
Continuing along, I get that
$$\int \frac{1}{1+x}dx$$ $$= \int [\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-x)^n]dx$$
with the sum valid for $|x|<1$.
Inside the interval of convergence of this sum, i.e., inside (-1,1), we have uniform convergence, and so we can integrate term-by-term, getting
$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \int (-x)^ndx$$ $$= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac {(-x)^{n+1}}{n+1}$$
same question: do I add a constant to the result of the indefinite integration?
Now relabeling indices gives
$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-x)^{n}}{n}$$
$$ = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-1)^{n+1}x^{n}}{n}$$
but we started with $log(1+x)$, so this shows that we have the equation:
$$ log(1+x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-1)^{n+1}x^{n}}{n}$$
and this implies that
$$ log(1+1) = log(2) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-1)^{n+1}1^{n}}{n}$$
$$ \ => \alpha = log(2) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-1)^{n+1}}{n}$$
as required.
What do you think? Am I close?
My concerns are the indefinite integration that I used a couple of times.
Also, I completely neglected the interval (and boundary) of convergence for $log(1+x)$, and just plugged in $x=1$, since I arrived at an equation. Is this ok to do?
Any hints or comments are welcome.
Thanks,