I have trouble understanding the answer to this question. I don't see how for normal subgroups $A,B$ of a group $G$ conditions $[A, A\cap B]=[B,A\cap B] = \{e\}$ and $A\cap B$ being abelian imply that $A\cap B \leq Z(G)$?
Edit: As David Hill pointed out, this statement is true for $G=AB$, which is acceptable assumption in the context of the liked post. So the question is, how $A\cap B \in Z(AB)$ implies that $[a,b]^k=[a,b^k]$ for $a\in A, b\in B$?