Stackexchange community,
i have a little trouble in understanding this condradtiction about singularities.
Lets consider the function $f(z)=\exp(-z)$.
This function can be expanded as a taylor series:
$$f(z)=1-z+\frac{z^2}{2!}-\frac{z^3}{3!}\pm$$
As this is "some sort of polynomial" it will never have a singularity on every finite domain of $z$.
But if I express $f(z)=\exp(-z)=\frac{1}{\exp(z)}$ and then apply the taylor series on $\exp(z)$ I get:
$$f(z)=\frac{1}{1+z+\frac{z^2}{2!}+\frac{z^3}{3!}\pm}$$
Now here comes my confusion, the new representation allows singularities of $f(z)$, as it is "some kind of polynomial" in the denominator. What is the problem here? Is it because of the radius of convergence?
EDIT: Ok it is because the fundamental theorem of calculus isn't true for infinite sums. Is there some intuitive way of understanding this phenomenon?
I would be glad if someone could solve this contradicion.