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If $f,g : \mathbb [0,1] \to \mathbb R$ are lower-semicontinuous, and $f(x) = g(x)$ for all $x$ in a dense subset of $[0,1]$, is it true that $f(x) = g(x)$ everywhere in $[0,1]$? If it helps, we can also assume that $f(x) \leq g(x)$ everywhere.


The context is this question, where $M$ is the pointwise supremum of a family $\mathcal F$ of continuous functions. I have constructed an increasing sequence $(f_n)$ of functions in $\mathcal F$ such that $f_n \to L$, and $L(q) = M(q)$ for each $q \in [0,1] \cap \mathbb Q$. So, $L$ and $M$ are LSC and agree on a dense subset, and $L \leq M$ pointwise, but I don't know if this implies agreement everywhere.

I've attempted to find a proof but haven't been able to make it work and I'm not sure whether it's actually true. I would appreciate either a hint or, if it's false, a counterexample and perhaps an additional hypothesis (less restrictive than continuity) that would make it true.

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It is not true. For example,

$$f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{ if } x\neq 1/2, \\ -1 & \text{if } x = 1/2.\end{cases}$$

and $$g(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{ if } x\neq 1/2, \\ 0 & \text{if } x = 1/2.\end{cases}$$

are the same for $x\neq 1/2$, $f(x) \le g(x)$ but are not the same function.

  • Nice and simple :-) I'll have to adjust my proof strategy for the other problem. –  Nov 02 '15 at 23:09