I am trying to see why (in respect to a measure $\mu$), this equality is true for some $u$: $$\int e^{iu}fd\mu=\int \operatorname{Re}(e^{iu}f)d\mu$$
Is it because they have the same measure or is it generally true for a complex valued function $f$? ($\int e^{iu}fdz=\int \operatorname{Re}(e^{iu}f)dz$).
Context I am trying to understand that $\left|\int fd\mu\right|\leq\int|f|d\mu$. So there is a $u$, $u\in[0,2\pi)$ such that $\left|\int fd\mu\right|=e^{iu}\int fd\mu=\int e^{iu}fd\mu=\int \operatorname{Re}(e^{iu}f)d\mu\leq\int |e^{iu}f|d\mu=\int|f|d\mu$.