Take $B(0,1)$ the ball in $\mathbb{R}^2$ with the normalized Lebesgue measure $\lambda$ such that $\int_{B(0,1)} d \lambda=1.$
Now, I want to show, or give a counterexample that this is false, that for all $f \in H^1_0(B(0,1))$ we have for fixed constants $a,b>0$ and any(!) $p \in (2,\infty)$ \begin{equation} ||f||_p^2 \le a \left(\int_{B(0,1)}| \nabla f|^2 d\lambda \right) + b ||f||_2^2. \end{equation}
Does anybody know how to do this? The normal Sobolev inequality is apparently too weak to show this, as this holds for any $p$ and fixed $a,b$.