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A popular introductory description of a "tangent (in geometry)" is presented as

"the tangent line (or simply tangent) to a plane curve at a given point is the straight line that "just touches" the curve at that point."

I like to find out whether and how this description might be expressed or translated in the setting of a given metric space (or generalizations, if possible); i.e. for a given set $\mathcal S$ together with (possibly generalized) distance values $$s : \mathcal S \times \mathcal S \rightarrow \mathbb R,$$ which may satisfy additional conditions.

It is certainly essential that the (image of the) plane curve under consideration and the (image of the) corresponding tangent line have at least the one point in common "at which they just touch", say point $\mathsf P$. But the property of "just touching" seems more subtle than just sharing one point.

Further, surely it is not relevant how the (images of the) curve or the tangent line are parametrized, in the strict sense of a curve as a function $\gamma : I \rightarrow \mathcal S$. It may not even be necessary to consider either of the two images as ordered sets at all. For further reference let's call set $K \subset \mathcal S$ the image of the curve under consideration, and set $L \subset \mathcal S$ the image of the tangent line (on $K$, at $\mathsf P$).

What does seem relevant, however, are values of circumcircle radii of triangles involving point $\mathsf P$:

  • the circumcircle radii of triangles consisting of point $\mathsf P$ and of any two points $\mathsf{A, B} \in K$ are apparently bounded (by a bound different from zero);

  • the tangent line image $L$ is straight, i.e. with Cayley-Menger determinants vanishing for any three points of $L$. The corresponding radii of circumcircles of any three points of $L$ are in this sense certainly bounded, too;

  • the circumcircle radii of triangles consisting of point $\mathsf P$, of any one point $\mathsf A \in K$ (on one "branch" of K) and of any one point $\mathsf M \in L$ (on the "branch" of L which is in a suitable sense "opposite" to that containing point $\mathsf A$) are apparently bounded (by a bound different from zero) as well.

My questions:

Are the two following properties (or definitions) already documented:

  • two sets $K, L \subset \mathcal S$ "just touching each other in point $\mathsf P$" being defined as

$ (0): \qquad \mathsf P \in K, $

$ (1):$
$\forall \mathsf{A, B} \in K : \left( \begin{vmatrix} 0 & s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} & s^2_{\mathsf{P B}} & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} & 0 & s^2_{\mathsf{A B}} & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P B}} & s^2_{\mathsf{A B}} & 0 & 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} \gt 0 \right) \implies \exists \kappa \in \mathbb R : \forall \mathsf{E, F} \in K :$

$\! \! \! \kappa \begin{vmatrix} 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} \! \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P B}} \! \! & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} \! \! & 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{A B}} \! \! & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P B}} \! \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{A B}} \! & 0 & 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} (s^2_{\mathsf{P E}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{P F}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{E F}}) \ge \begin{vmatrix} 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P E}} \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P F}} \! & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P E}} \! & 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{E F}} \! & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P F}} \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{E F}} \! & 0 & 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} (s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{P B}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{A B}}); \! \!$

$ (2):$
$\forall \mathsf{H, J} \in L : \left( \begin{vmatrix} 0 & s^2_{\mathsf{P H}} & s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P H}} & 0 & s^2_{\mathsf{H J}} & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} & s^2_{\mathsf{H J}} & 0 & 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} \gt 0 \right) \implies \exists \lambda \in \mathbb R : \forall \mathsf{M, Q} \in L :$

$\! \! \! \lambda \begin{vmatrix} 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P H}} \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} \! & \! 1 \cr \! s^2_{\mathsf{P H}} \! \! & 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{H J}} \! & \! 1 \cr \! s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} \! \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{H J}} \! & 0 & \! 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & \! 0 \end{vmatrix} (s^2_{\mathsf{P M}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{P Q}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{M Q}}) \ge \begin{vmatrix} 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P M}} \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P Q}} \! & \! 1 \cr \! s^2_{\mathsf{P M}} \! \! & 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{M Q}} \! & \! 1 \cr \! s^2_{\mathsf{P Q}} \! \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{M Q}} \! & 0 & \! 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & \! 0 \end{vmatrix} (s^2_{\mathsf{P H}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{H J}}); \! \! \! $

$(3):$
$\forall \mathsf A \in K, \mathsf J \in L \text{ with } s^4_{\mathsf{A J}} \gt s^4_{\mathsf{P A}}; s^4_{\mathsf{A J}} \gt s^4_{\mathsf{P J}} :$

$ \left( \begin{vmatrix} 0 & s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} & s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} & 0 & s^2_{\mathsf{A J}} & 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} & s^2_{\mathsf{A J}} & 0 & 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} \gt 0 \right) \implies \exists \mu \in \mathbb R : \forall \mathsf F \in K, \mathsf Q \in L \text{ with } s^4_{\mathsf{F Q}} \gt s^4_{\mathsf{P F}}; s^4_{\mathsf{F Q}} \gt s^4_{\mathsf{P Q}} :$

$ \! \! \! \mu \begin{vmatrix} 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} \! & \! 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} \! \! & 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{A J}} \! & \! 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} \! \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{A J}} \! & 0 & \! 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & \! 0 \end{vmatrix} (s^2_{\mathsf{P F}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{P Q}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{F Q}}) \ge \begin{vmatrix} 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P F}} \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{P Q}} \! & \! 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P F}} \! \! & 0 & \! s^2_{\mathsf{F Q}} \! & \! 1 \cr s^2_{\mathsf{P Q}} \! \! & \! s^2_{\mathsf{F Q}} \! & 0 & \! 1 \cr 1 & 1 & 1 & \! 0 \end{vmatrix} (s^2_{\mathsf{P A}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{P J}} ~ s^2_{\mathsf{A J}}); \! \! \! $

or in turn ("curves intersecting" meaning that arbitrarily small circumcircle radii can be found, regardless of "branches" being selected):

  • two sets $\!K, L \subset \mathcal S\!$ which satisfy conditions $(0)$, $(1)$, $(2)$, but not $(3)$, being called "intersecting each other in point $\mathsf P$"

?

And if so:
Do these definitions also apply, or can they be adapted, to spaces in which Lorentzian distance can be defined?

user12262
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  • Ouch!, I just realized that the idea doesn't quite work out, as it's presently sketched: arbitrarily small circumcircle radii can be had from triangles made of point P together with one point from one and another point from the other curve in any case; whether "intersecting" or "just touching". I don't know whether this can be rescued (at least by considering segments on "opposite sides of P"); back in approx. 12 h ... – user12262 Oct 14 '15 at 05:20
  • Have you considered generalizing straight line to geodesic? – Muphrid Oct 14 '15 at 14:24
  • @Muphrid: "[...] generalizing straight line to geodesic?" -- If you've been trying to help me out of my momentary difficulty (which I tried to spell out in my above comment): thanks; but note how I believe I've overcome this difficulty in the recent edit of my question. (This turned out still simpler than I had been fearing 12 hours ago). The idea is essentially being able to distinguish two "branches" of (the image of) any curve relative to its given point $\mathsf P$. Surely that's a weaker requirement than for geodesics to exist; which I purposefully haven't required from the outset. – user12262 Oct 14 '15 at 18:07
  • p.s. I hope it's still o.k. for me not to include a big notification about my recent Edit inside the question itself; because I believe I didn't change the general gist of my question at all, but (merely) still tried to phrase it correctly in formal terms. – user12262 Oct 14 '15 at 18:12
  • All right, I guess I must not be understanding what you're trying to do. To me, even if we don't resort to using geodesics, if two curves coincide at a point and their tangent vectors at that point are in the same direction, the curves must be tangent to one another (just touching), rather than intersecting, and more rigorously, that means there exists a neighborhood around the common point such that the two curves do not cross. I do not think I understand why you have put that aside for your more sophisticated construction and argument, sorry. – Muphrid Oct 14 '15 at 18:19
  • @Muphrid: "To me, even if we don't resort to using geodesics, if two curves coincide at a point and their tangent vectors at that point are in the same direction, the curves must be tangent to one another (just touching)" -- Fair enough. But I like to understand and express at least the notion "(same) direction" in the first place, exclusively by means of "distances" (or "distance ratios"); without having to sprinkle any coordinates on the elements of set $\mathcal S$. (The idea of "tangent vector(s)" might not get involved at all, for lack of a suitable notion of "magnitude".) – user12262 Oct 14 '15 at 18:45

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