I am a high school student, so I know how to derive the volume $V=\dfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3$ using calculus, but I am unable to derive its surface area.
However, I notice that we can approximate the surface area of a sphere by imaging 'the shell' of the sphere as the difference between two similarly sized spheres with width infinitely small.
What I mean is that if we have two spheres, one of radius $r$ and another of radius $r+h$, where $h$ is very small, the surface area can be roughly measured by the difference in volume of these two spheres divided by its width $h$.
Therefore if $f(r)$ is the volume of a sphere with radius $r$, then the surface area should be $$\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{f(r+h)-f(r)}{h}$$but this is exactly the derivative $f'(r)$ of the volume.
Hence we can say that the surface area of a sphere is $4\pi r^2$.
Is this proof even correct? Is it rigorous? How do I improve it and make it more convincing?
I noticed how this should similarly work for other objects, for example, the derivative of the area of a circle is its perimeter. Does this phenomenon likewise extend to other examples?
Thanks for all your help!