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I need to prove the equivalence of the following two statements, if $G$ is a group:

$G$ is abelian $\Leftrightarrow$ for each $a,b$ in $G$: $(ab)^n = a^n b^n$ for each integer $n$

I have done the $\Rightarrow$ implication, but I have no idea how to approach $\Leftarrow$, any hints are very welcome.

Simon S
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Sara
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1 Answers1

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Consider the case $n = 2$. We have

$$abab = aabb \Rightarrow a^{-1}ababb^{-1} = a^{-1}aabbb^{-1} \Rightarrow ba = ab$$

Simon S
  • 26,524