What is the inverse of this statement:
The case $Q$ is true if and only if there exist $θ∈ℝ$ such that the property $P=P(θ)$ is verified.
What is the inverse of this statement:
The case $Q$ is true if and only if there exist $θ∈ℝ$ such that the property $P=P(θ)$ is verified.
Neither "converse" nor "inverse" quite work when applied to biconditionals. To negate both sides:
$$\neg Q \iff \forall \theta \in \mathbb R: \neg P(\theta) $$
In other words, $Q$ is false iff for all reals $\theta$, $P(\theta)$ does not hold.