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What is the inverse of this statement:

The case $Q$ is true if and only if there exist $θ∈ℝ$ such that the property $P=P(θ)$ is verified.

DER
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1 Answers1

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Neither "converse" nor "inverse" quite work when applied to biconditionals. To negate both sides:

$$\neg Q \iff \forall \theta \in \mathbb R: \neg P(\theta) $$

In other words, $Q$ is false iff for all reals $\theta$, $P(\theta)$ does not hold.

BrianO
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