I have the following limit:
If $z_{n+1}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(z_n+\dfrac{1}{z_n}\right)$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}\cup \{0\}$ and $-\dfrac{\pi}{2}<arg(z_0)<\dfrac{\pi}{2},$ then $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} z_n=1.$$
I have tried to look for a recurent formula, but every time it gets worst and worst. I have also tried to put $z_0=|z_0|e^{i \theta}$ for $-\dfrac{\pi}{2}<\theta<\dfrac{\pi}{2},$ but I'm really stuck.
Any hint would be appreciated.