Prove that if $n\geq1$ then $$\binom{2n}{n}=\sum_{k=0}^{n}(\binom{n}{k})^2$$
This is what I have so far:
By the Binomial Theorem: $$\binom{2n}{n}=\frac{(2n)!}{(2n-2)!n!}=\frac{2n!~}{n^2(n-1)^2(n-2)^2...1}$$
By the definition of summation: $$\sum_{k=0}^{n}(\binom{n}{k})^2=(\binom{n}{0})^2+(\binom{n}{1})^2+(\binom{n}{2})^2+(\binom{n}{3})^2+...+(\binom{n}{n})^2$$
By the Binomial Theorem => $$\sum_{k=0}^{n}(\binom{n}{k})^2=1^2+(\frac{n!}{(n-1)!})^2+(\frac{n!}{(n-2)!2!})^2+(\frac{n!}{(n-3)!3!})^2+...+1^2$$
$$=1+\frac{n!n!}{((n-1)!)^2}+\frac{n!n!}{((n-2)!)^2(2!)^2}+\frac{n!n!}{((n-3)!)^2(3!)^2}+...+1$$
This is where I get stuck. I'm not sure how to continue from here. I know that what I am getting is starting to look a lot like what I want it to look like but I don't know how to finish, nor am I sure that I've done it correctly to this point. Help?