any sugestions?, by Stolz–Cesàro?. The trouble says that first try with $k<n$ and then for a particular $k<\frac{n}{2}$ I try by definition of $\epsilon$ but it doesn't help

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2Are you sure you aren't missing some logarithms or something? Or that the limit should be zero instead of one? As written this doesn't look true at all. – user2566092 Sep 22 '15 at 16:13
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3I think you will find it very hard to prove, since it is not true. That limit is $0$. – robjohn Sep 22 '15 at 16:15
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1The above limit is $0$. This can be done in one short line, minimal machinery. The expression is $\le \frac{1}{n}$. The hint is kind of weird, too much work. – André Nicolas Sep 22 '15 at 16:16
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sorry, I made a mistake, the limit goes to zero – Iván Galeana Aguilar Sep 22 '15 at 16:17
4 Answers
Every number in the product $n!$ is less than or equal to $n$. In particular, one of them is $1$. Can you use this to show $n! / n^n \leq 1/n$?

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There is a very simple approach: by the AM-GM inequality, $$ n!^2 \leq \left(\frac{n+1}{2}\right)^{2n},$$ hence the wanted limit is clearly $\color{red}{0}$.

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$0\leq{n!}\leq{n^{n-1}}\implies$
$\frac{0}{n^n}\leq\frac{n!}{n^n}\leq\frac{n^{n-1}}{n^n}\implies$
$0\leq\frac{n!}{n^n}\leq\frac{1}{n}\implies$
$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}0\leq\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{n!}{n^n}\leq\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\implies$
$0\leq\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{n!}{n^n}\leq0\implies$
$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{n!}{n^n}=0$

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You can also use Stirling's approximation: $n!\sim \left(\dfrac{n}{e}\right)^n\sqrt{2\pi n}$ as $n\to \infty$

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