The closed map lemma says that if $f : X \to Y$ is a continuous function, $X$ is compact and $Y$ is Hausdorff, then $f$ is a closed map.
How can I prove this ?
Here is my attempt so far:
Suppose for contradiction that $f$ is not a closed map. Then there exists a closed subset $V$ of $X$ whose image $f(X)$ is not closed in $Y$. This means that there exists a convergent sequence $(w_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ in $f(V)$ whose limit is not contained in $f(V)$.
Now by compactness of $X$, we know the inverse image $f^{-1}((w_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}})$ of the sequence contains a limit point, denote it by $z$, which lies in $V$ (as $V$ is closed). But then, by continuity of $f$, we also know that $f(z)$ must be a limit point of the sequence $(w_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$. By the fact that the latter converges, we deduce that this limit point must be the unique limit. Thus we have
\begin{equation} V \ni z \mapsto f(z) \notin f(V) \end{equation}
which is a contradiction.
Here is my question: Where does the Hausdorff condition for $Y$ enter the proof ? Since it is not mentioned in my above attempt I must have a mistake somehwhere .. what did I miss ?
Many thanks for your help !!