The title says pretty much everything:
We have $z\in\mathbb{C}$ such that $\|z\|=1$ and a monic polynomial $p\in\mathbb{Z}[x]$ such that $p(z)=0$.
Is it true that for some $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $z^n=1$?
My thoughts about it: assume that $z=e^{\pi i\alpha}$ and $z$ is not a root of unity, i.e. $\alpha\not\in\mathbb{Q}$. Then $\alpha$ has to be a trascendental number: otherwise, by the Gelfond-Schneider theorem, $z$ is a trascendental number. But obviously this is far from closing the question: for instance, $\frac{3+4i}{5}$ is a complex number with unit modulus, and $\frac{1}{\pi}\arctan\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)$ is a trascendental number, but there is no monic polynomial with integer coefficients having $\frac{3+4i}{5}$ as a root. So, what is the good way to go for proving the claim above, since I believe it is true? Counter-examples are welcome as well, obviously.