I came accross some obstacles in proving that the time $T(\delta)$ taken by a pendulum to travel from $\theta=\pi-\delta$ to a considerably distant angle $\theta=\theta_0\in(0,\pi/4)$ diverges logarithmic-ally with respect to $\delta$.
Here is my work so far.
The expression of $T(\delta)$ is $$T(\delta)=-\int_{\pi-\delta}^{\theta_0}\frac{1}{\sqrt{\frac{2g}{L}[\cos{\theta}+\cos{\delta}]}}d\theta.$$
I was able to make a heuristic argument by taking $\cos{\delta}\approx 1$ (since a cosine function is 1 up to the second order) and directly doing the integration. It indeed is a logarithm blow-up.
Not being convinced by my own argument (okay for my physics-oriented self by skeptical for my math-oriented self because $\delta$ appears both in the integral limit and in the integrand, and thus taking the limit only in the integrand seems un-justified), I came to the solution of the integral, the elliptical integral of the first kind.
What I get so far is by a standard change-of-variable (learned from Zorich) $\sin{\theta}=\frac{\sin{\psi/2}}{\sin{\phi_0/2}}$ where $\phi_0=\pi-\delta$, I changed it to a complete elliptic integral (plus a finite constant)
$$T(\delta)=\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-k^2\sin^2{\theta}}}d\theta=K(k)$$ where $k=\sin{\phi_0/2}=\sin{(\pi/2-\delta/2)}$.
It seems the remaining task is to show that $$\lim_{\delta\rightarrow0}\frac{K(\sin{(\pi/2-\delta/2)})}{\ln{\delta}}=const\neq0.$$
I'm not so familiar with the elliptic integrals and did not get readable results about this asymptotic behavior of K in Google. I'd very appreciate it if there is any derivation on this.
Thanks in advance for any answer or remark!!