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I have very little experience writing proofs so I don't know how to begin.

I recognize that the statement is always true, but I can't go about proving it without using circular reasoning.

How could I write a proof for this?

Euler88 ...
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2 Answers2

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We can prove this using the well known identity $$\cos (a-b) = \cos a\cos b + \sin a\sin b$$ Here $a = \dfrac{\pi}{2}, b = x$ so now we have \begin{align*} \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right) &= \cos\frac{\pi}{2}\cos x + \sin\frac{\pi}{2}\sin x \\ &=0\cdot\cos x + 1\cdot \sin x \\ &= \sin x \end{align*}

Rick
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Geometrically:

given a right triangle with angles $A$, $B$, and $C=\pi/2$ and sides $a$, $b$, and $c$ opposite the respective angles, you have $$\sin(A)=\frac{a}{c}$$ and $$\cos(B)=\frac{a}{c}$$ And we know that $$B=\pi-A-\pi/2$$ so the result is immediate.


Using Euler's formula:

We know that $e^{i\theta}=\cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta)$, so that $$e^{i(\pi/2-x)}=\cos(\pi/2-x)+i\sin(\pi/2-x)$$ But, this is the same as $$e^{i(\pi/2-x)}=e^{i\pi/2}e^{-ix}=i(\cos(-x)+i\sin(-x))\\ =i\cos(x)+\sin(x)$$

Since two complex numbers are the same only when their real and imaginary parts are respectively equal, the result holds.

Terra Hyde
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