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Let $E \subseteq \mathbb R$ be Lebesgue measurable. And $E + q = E$ for any rational number $q$. Show that either $E$ or its complement has measure $0$.


I tried this problem for few hours but couldn't get too far. I only got $E$ and its complement are both dense if not empty. And $\mu (F +q \backslash E) = \mu (F \backslash E) $ for any $q$. But this doesn't seem to help much. Any help is appreciated.

user112564
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  • Have you heard of Kolmogorov's 0-1 law? I guess it applies here. – Quinn Culver Aug 19 '15 at 22:35
  • sorry I haven't heard any of these. Can I do it without these theorems? – user112564 Aug 19 '15 at 22:36
  • http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/164258/measurable-subset-of-unit-circle-invariant-under-translation-by-infinitely-many –  Aug 19 '15 at 22:43
  • @user112564 In spite of having thought about it a lot myself, I don’t have an answer. However, this problem inspired me to formulate a more general conjecture that I posted as a separate question. The conjecture is that if a Borel set is dense but has an empty interior, then it must either have zero measure or “full measure” (in the sense that its complement has zero measure). See the other post here. – triple_sec Aug 20 '15 at 23:36
  • @user112564 Update: The conjecture above is false, so the topological fact that $E$ and $E^{\mathsf c}$ are both dense if they are non-empty, in and by itself, doesn’t get us closer. – triple_sec Aug 21 '15 at 00:20
  • See this pdf file for a proof, and an application to characterizing Lebesgue measurable solutions of Cauchy's additive functional equation. – Mohsen Shahriari Sep 02 '21 at 01:35

3 Answers3

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This answer may be a bit lengthy, but this is because I am building it on a series of steps with ample details.

Claim 1: Let $a$ and $b$ be rational numbers such that $a<b$. Then, $$\mu[E\cap(a,b)]=(b-a)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)].$$

Intuition: The set $E$ has the same “density” on all open intervals with rational endpoints.

Proof: If $a$ and $b$ are rational numbers and $a<b$, then $b-a$ is a positive rational number, so there exist positive integers $m,n$ such that $(b-a)=m/n$. Then, by the translation-invariance of the Lebesgue measure, the fact that the set $E$ is invariant to rational translations, and the fact that singletons have Lebesgue measure zero, one has that \begin{align*} &\,\mu[E\cap(a,b)]=\mu[(E-a)\cap(0,b-a)]=\mu[E\cap(0,m/n)]=\sum_{j=1}^m\mu[E\cap((j-1)/n,j/n)]\\ =&\,\sum_{j=1}^m\mu[(E-(j-1)/n)\cap(0,1/n)]=\sum_{j=1}^m\mu(E\cap(0,1/n))=m\times\mu[E\cap(0,1/n)]\\ =&\,\frac{m}{n}\times n\times\mu[E\cap(0,1/n)]=\frac{m}{n}\times\sum_{j=1}^n\mu[(E-(j-1)/n)\cap(0,1/n)]\\ =&\,\frac{m}{n}\times\sum_{j=1}^n\mu[E\cap((j-1)/n,j/n)]=\frac{m}{n}\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]=(b-a)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]. \end{align*} This completes the proof. $\quad\blacksquare$

Claim 2: Let $U\subseteq\mathbb R$ be any bounded open set. Then, $$\mu(E\cap U)=\mu[E\cap(0,1)]\times\mu(U).$$

Intuition: The set $E$ has the same “density” on all bounded open sets, thereby extending Claim 1.

Proof: Pick any bounded open set $U\subseteq\mathbb R$. If $U$ is empty, the claim is trivial. If $U$ is not empty, then $U$ can be decomposed as an at-most-countable disjoint union of open intervals: $$U=\bigcup_{n=1}^{N}(a_n,b_n)$$ for some real numbers $\{a_n,b_n\}_{n=1}^N$, where $N\in\mathbb N\cup\{+\infty\}$, such that $a_n<b_n$ for each $n$. (Note that since $U$ is assumed to be bounded, none of these numbers can be of infinite value.)

Now, fix $\varepsilon>0$. For each $n$, choose $\hat a_n$ and $\hat b_n$ in such a way that

  • $\hat a_n$ and $\hat b_n$ are rational;
  • $a_n<\hat a_n<\hat b_n<b_n$; and
  • $\hat a_n<a_n+\varepsilon/2^{n+1}$ and $\hat b_n>b_n-\varepsilon/2^{n+1}$.

Let $$\hat U\equiv\bigcup_{n=1}^N(\hat a_n,\hat b_n).$$ Then, it is easy to see that $\hat U$ is open, $\hat U\subseteq U$, and $\mu(\hat U)>\mu(U)-\varepsilon$. In turn, \begin{align*} &\,\mu(E\cap U)=\mu(E\cap\hat U)+\mu(E\cap U\setminus\hat U)=\sum_{n=1}^N\mu[E\cap(\hat a_n,\hat b_n)]+\mu(E\cap U\setminus\hat U)\\ =&\,\sum_{n=1}^N(\hat b_n-\hat a_n)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]+\mu(E\cap U\setminus\hat U)=\mu(\hat U)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]+\mu(E\cap U\setminus\hat U)\\ \leq&\,\mu(U)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]+\mu(U\setminus\hat U)<\mu(U)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]+\varepsilon, \end{align*} using Claim 1.

On the other hand, \begin{align*} &\,\mu(E\cap U)=\mu(E\cap\hat U)+\mu(E\cap U\setminus\hat U)=[\text{as above}]=\mu(\hat U)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]+\mu(E\cap U\setminus\hat U)\\ \geq&\,\mu(\hat U)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]\geq\mu(U)\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]-\varepsilon\times\mu[E\cap(0,1)]. \end{align*}

Observing that $\varepsilon>0$ can be made arbitrarily small in the preceding two series of inequalities completes the proof. $\quad\blacksquare$

Claim 3: The measure of the set $E\cap (0,1)$ is either $0$ or $1$.

Intuition: The “density” of $E$, which is uniform on all bounded open sets by Claim 2, must either completely fill up the full measure of the benchmark interval $(0,1)$, or completely fail to fill it up at all.

Proof: Suppose that $\mu[E\cap(0,1)]<1$. By the regularity of the Lebesgue measure, there exists an open set $U\subseteq \mathbb R$ such that $E\cap(0,1)\subseteq U$ and $\mu(U)<1$. Without loss of generality, $U$ may taken to be a subset of $(0,1)$. [If it is not, simply take its intersection with $(0,1)$.] If $\mu[E\cap(0,1)]>0$, then Claim 2 implies that \begin{align*} 0<\color{red}{\mu[E\cap(0,1)]}\leq\mu(E\cap U)=\mu[E\cap(0,1)]\times\mu(U)<\color{red}{\mu[E\cap(0,1)]}, \end{align*} which is a contradiction. Hence, it must be the case that if $\mu[E\cap(0,1)]<1$, then $\mu[E\cap(0,1)]=0$, completing the proof. $\quad\blacksquare$

Claim 4: Either $\mu(E)=0$ or $\mu(E^{\mathsf c})=0$.

Intuition: Make sure the champagne is cold already. We’re almost done.

Proof: Suppose that $\mu(E)>0$. By translation-invariance, it is easy to see that $$M\equiv\mu[E\cap(0,1)]=\mu[E\cap(n,n+1)]$$ for all $n\in\mathbb Z$, so $$0<\mu(E)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z}\mu[E\cap(n,n+1]]=\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z}\mu[E\cap(n,n+1)]=\infty\times M$$ implies that $M>0$ [and, in fact, $\mu(E)=\infty$]. By Claim 3, $M\in\{0,1\}$. Hence $M=1$, so that $\mu[E^{\mathsf c}\cap (0,1)]=0$. In turn, this implies that $\mu(E^{\mathsf c})=0$ by a similar translation-invariance argument, given that $E^{\mathsf c}+q=E^{\mathsf c}$ for all $q\in\mathbb Q$ is easily seen to hold as well. $\quad\blacksquare$

triple_sec
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    Nothing wrong,but claim 2's proof could be shortened by showing that claim 1 applies for all a,b because (a,b) is the union of a countable set of pairwise-disjoint open intervals with rational endpoints plus a countable set of their endpoints.So claim2 is an equation when U is an open interval, hence it is an equation for a union of pairwise disjoint open intervals, i.e. any open U. – DanielWainfleet Aug 21 '15 at 07:44
  • @User254665 That’s true—I realized this after writing up the proof. However, I decided to leave it as it is, because the proof of Claim 1 is complicated enough already. If it went on like “now suppose that $a$ and $b$ are not necessarily rational but arbitrary real numbers,” then the proof of Claim 1 would become too tedious for my taste. Of course, the proof of Claim 2 would then become less complicated that way, but I have preferred distributing the tedium across proofs more or less evenly for psychological reasons (i.e., I don’t want the reader to get too tired in the beginning). – triple_sec Aug 21 '15 at 07:50
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For the Lebesgue density theorem see Wikipedia. We say that a point $x$ has density $\alpha$ in $A$ if $$ \lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{m(A \cap (x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon))} {2 \epsilon} = \alpha. $$ If now $E$ is measurable, then $E^c$ is also measurable. If $x \in E$ has density $1$ in $E$, then $x$ has density $0$ in $E^c$. It therefore follows that if each $x \in \mathbb R$ has density $1$ in $E$, $E^c$ has no points of density $1$, which implies (by Lebesgue density theorem) that $m(E^c) = 0$.

If now $m(A) > 0$, the argument of triple_sec shows that $m(A \cap (0,1)) = 1$ and hence that, by his observation that $m(A \cap (a,b)) = (b-a) m(A \cap (0,1))$ for all intervals $(a,b)$, $$ \frac{m(A \cap (x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon))}{2 \epsilon} = m(A \cap (0,1)) = 1. $$ As this is independent of $x$ and $\epsilon$, every $x \in \mathbb R$ is a density point of $A$.

  • Nit: should it be $m((E + (x-y)) \cap (x-\epsilon, x+\epsilon))$ instead of $m((E - (x+y)) \cap (x-\epsilon, x+\epsilon))$? Also, why do you need continuity to deduce that $m(E+z) = m(E)$ for all $z \in \mathbb{R}$? This is exactly the translation-invariance of $m$. –  Aug 20 '15 at 00:48
  • Yes, I agree with the above comment. So can you say more about how you get the last equality? – user112564 Aug 20 '15 at 02:23
  • Okay Bungo is right. To get the desired result I want to have that $m((E+(x-y)) \cap (x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon)) = m(E \cap (x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon))$. I will think a moment about that. Does it follow from density of $\mathbb Q$ in $\mathbb R$ that $m(E \cap I) = m((E+z) \cap I)$ for every open set $I$ and real number $z$ ? –  Aug 20 '15 at 08:46
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Just a slightly more abstract approach: what you are claiming is that the action of the rationals on the real numbers is ergodic with respect to Lebesgue measure. This follows since the rationals are a dense subgroup of the reals and the reals act ergodically on themselves (see Zimmer book: "Ergodic theory and semisimple groups" Lemma 2.2.13)