I know from this question that it's an open problem whether or not the existence of a dense orthonomral basis for every real or complex Hilbert space $(\text{B}_\text{orth})$ implies the axiom of choice. This tells me that the axiom of dependent choice, $(\text{DC})$, isn't strong enough to imply that every non-seperable Hilbert space has an orthonormal basis (otherwise it wouldn't be an open problem because if $(\text{B}_\text{orth})\Rightarrow(\text{AC})$ then $(\text{DC})\Rightarrow(\text{AC})$ and the Solovay model would be unsatisfiable) so it's not immediately impossible that you can prove the existence of a non-Lebesgue measurable set, $(\text{not-LM})$, from $(\text{B}_\text{orth})$.
I know from the paper The Hahn-Banach theorem implies the existence of a non-Lebesgue measurable set by Foreman and Wehrung that the full Hahn-Banach theorem is enough to prove $(\text{not-LM})$ and I know that a weakened version of the Hahn-Banach theorem for Hilbert spaces is somewhat immediate, but the proof of $(\text{not-LM})$ in that paper relies on the equivalence of Hahn-Banach and the existence of a finitely additive measure on every Boolean algebra and I'm not sure how that statement is weakened for weakened versions of Hahn-Banach.