Answering this question it occurred to me that the OP's definition of integral is unsatisfactory in the following sense. He defines it using the usual Lebesgue integral. I think it would be far more satisfactory if we could define the integral without using Lebesgue integral. In other words, it would be far more satisfactory if we could define the upper integral without using Lebesgue integral. Here is my effort to define the upper integral along this line.
Let $(X, \mathcal M, \mu)$ be a measure space. Let $g: X \rightarrow [0, \infty]$ be a non-negative extended real-valued function. We call $g$ an elementary function if $g$ is measurable and $g(X)$ is countable. We define $\int g \, d\mu$ in the obvious manner. Let $f: X \rightarrow [0, \infty]$ be a non-negative extended real-valued function. Define $\int^* f \,d\mu = \inf \left\{\int g \, d\mu; f \le g, g:\text{ elementary} \right\}$.
My question is:
$$\int f \,d\mu = \int^* f \,d\mu\text{ if }f\text{ is measurable?}$$