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Could someone help me understand how to prove $P(A'\mid B) = 1-P(A \mid B)$? I tried to make it so:

$P(A'\mid B)= \cfrac{P(A'\cap B)}{P(B)}$ but I'm not sure how to continue.

(I see that there is a question asking to prove $$P(A|B) = 1-P(A'|B) $$ How is it possible that P(Not A |B) would yield the same proof as P(A|B)?

nodel
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1 Answers1

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By the definition of conditional probability, we have $$P(C\mid B) = \frac{P(C \cap B)}{P(B)}$$

Taking $C=A'$, we have

$$P(A'\mid B) = \frac{P(A' \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{P(B)-P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=1-\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=1-P(A\mid B)$$

Where we have $P(A' \cap B)+P(A \cap B)=P(B)$ because we always have either $A$ or $A'$ happening in addition to $B$, but never both. Rewriting gives $P(A' \cap B)=P(B)-P(A \cap B)$.

This proves the asked.


For the edit, this is just rewriting.

$$P(A'\mid B)=1-P(A\mid B)$$

$$P(A'\mid B)+P(A\mid B)=1$$

$$P(A\mid B)=1-P(A'\mid B)$$

wythagoras
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