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My question is very simple.

I know every metric space is Hausdorff, but the converse is true? anyone knows some counterexample?

Thanks

user42912
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2 Answers2

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Consider the space $X = \{0,1\}^\mathbb R$ of all functions from $\mathbb R$ to $\{0,1\}$ (actually any uncountable set would do in place of $\mathbb R$). The topology is the product topology, i.e. a base is the cylinder sets, the sets obtained by specifying the values of the function at finitely many points. This is Hausdorff, indeed for any $x \ne y \in X$ there is some $t \in \mathbb R$ such that $x(t) \ne y(t)$. It is not metrizable because no point can have a countable base of neighbourhoods: the intersection of a countable collection of cylinder sets containing $x$ will still contain lots of points besides $x$, because it only restricts the values at countably many members of $\mathbb R$.

Robert Israel
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The ordinal $\omega_1+1$ with the order topology is Hausdorff but not metrizable.

Noah Schweber
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