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Suppose that $X$ is a metric space. Is it always true that for any $F_{\sigma}$ set $A$, any subset $B \subset A$, $B$ is $F_{\sigma}$? It seems correct to me but I have no idea how to prove it.

Idonknow
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    $X$ itself is $F_{\sigma}$! So you are asking us if every subset is $F_{\sigma}$, which is not true in general. – Crostul Jul 14 '15 at 10:04

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I don't think so. Observe that $\mathbb R$ is $F_\sigma$, but the subset $\mathbb R \setminus \mathbb Q$ is not.

Potato
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