Suppose that $X$ is a metric space. Is it always true that for any $F_{\sigma}$ set $A$, any subset $B \subset A$, $B$ is $F_{\sigma}$? It seems correct to me but I have no idea how to prove it.
Asked
Active
Viewed 58 times
2
-
1$X$ itself is $F_{\sigma}$! So you are asking us if every subset is $F_{\sigma}$, which is not true in general. – Crostul Jul 14 '15 at 10:04