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I have computed probabilities that horse A beats horse B, horse A beats horse C and so on. I want to find out the probability that the horse will finish in a particular position, say 2nd.

Edit: In a horse race, with multiple horses. I know the probability that horse 1 will be horse 2 and probability that horse 1 will beat horse 3 and so on. eg: probability of horse 1 beating horse 2 depicted as h1->h2: P h1->h2: 0.6 h1->h3: 0.7 h1->h4: 0.75 h1->h5: 0.8

i want to know what is the probability that horse 1 will attain a position say 2nd or 3rd?

  • @2000 I believe OP is talking about horse racing. – Rammus Jul 11 '15 at 21:14
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    This needs clarification: do you mean that you know the probability that, say, A will beat B in a two horse race or do you mean you know the probability that in the tournament in question you know the probability that A will come out ahead of B? (since the two horse competitions are not independent events I don't believe the two types of data are equivalent). – lulu Jul 11 '15 at 21:16
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    Related (but a little less general): http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/878910/calculating-probabilities-in-horse-racing – Micah Jul 11 '15 at 21:19
  • @Micah Good reference. In particular, if you treat each pairwise horse race as a fair coin toss then it is not necessarily true that each horse has an equal chance of winning a group race. Somewhat unintuitive. – lulu Jul 11 '15 at 21:24

2 Answers2

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For the sake of completeness: I think the problem is ill-posed as written, because knowing the probabilities that horse #i beats horse #j in a 1:1 match up does not tell you the odds of any particular horse winning a group race. To see this, let's just take a three horse race and to keep it simple let's assume that the outcome between any two horse is 50:50. We'll construct an example in which A is more likely to win the race than B.

Construction: model the race by saying that the outcome will be a weighted draw of the possible outcomes. Specifically let $$p_1 = Prob(A,B,C)$$ $$p_2 =Prob(B,C,A)$$ $$p_3=Prob(C,A,B)$$ $$p_4 = Prob(A,C,B)$$ $$p_5 = Prob(B,A,C)$$ $$p_6= Prob(C,B,A)$$ What do we know? Well of course these 6 numbers must add to 1. Better than that, we know these numbers must be consistent with the assumed probabilities of the two horse competitions. Thus, for example, we know that $$\frac{1}{2} = Prob(A,B)=p_1+p_3+p_4$$ Since those three cases are the only three in which A beats B. Similarly $$p_1+p_2+p_5 = Prob(B,C) = \frac{1}{2} = Prob(A,C) = p_1+p_4+p_5$$ Thus we have 3 equations in 5 unknowns. There are infinitely many solutions. For example, it is easy to verify that taking {$p_i$} = {.3, .1, .1, .1, .1, .3} works. Let's take this particular example to be our probabilities. In this case, the probability that A wins the three horse contest is $p_1+p_4=\frac{4}{10}$ (this is also the probability that C wins. The probability that B wins is $\frac{2}{10}$).

lulu
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If there are $n$ horses, $h_i, i=1, ..., n$, and you know $p_{ij}$, the probability that horse $i$ beats horse $j$, I would argue like this:

First of all, I assume that there is zero probability of a tie, so $p_{ij}+p_{ji} = 1$.

For any permutation $\pi$ of $[1, ..., n]$, I would define the probability of that permutation occurring is $\prod_{i=1}^{n-1} \prod_{j=i+1}^n p_{\pi(i)\pi(j)} =\prod_{j=2}^{n} \prod_{i=1}^{j-1} p_{\pi(i)\pi(j)} =\prod_{1\le i < j \le n} p_{\pi(i)\pi(j)} $. This is because, for that permutation to happen, horse $\pi(i)$ has to beat horse $\pi(j)$ for all combinations of $j > i $.

I think it would be possible to prove (by induction) that the sum of this probability of all permutations is $1$. (Oops. Further on I show that this does not hold for $n=3$.)

For $n=2$, the permutations are $[1, 2]$ and $[2, 1]$. The probability of $[1, 2]$ is $p_{12} $ and the probability of $[2, 1]$ is $p_{21} $ and the sum of these is $1$.

For $n=3$, the permutations are $[123], [132], [213], [231], [312], [321]$. The probabilities are

$\begin{array}\\ 123& p_{12}p_{13}p_{23}\\ 132& p_{13}p_{12}p_{32}\\ 213& p_{21}p_{23}p_{13}\\ 231& p_{23}p_{21}p_{31}\\ 312& p_{31}p_{32}p_{12}\\ 321& p_{32}p_{31}p_{21}\\ \end{array} $

and the sum of these is

$\begin{array}\\ \sum_{\pi([123])} \prod_{1\le i < j \le 3} p_{\pi(i)\pi(j)} &=p_{12}p_{13}p_{23}+p_{13}p_{12}p_{32} + p_{21}p_{23}p_{13}+ p_{23}p_{21}p_{31} + p_{31}p_{32}p_{12}+ p_{32}p_{31}p_{21}\\ &=p_{12}p_{13}p_{23}+p_{13}p_{12}(1-p_{23}) + p_{21}p_{23}p_{13}+ p_{23}p_{21}(1-p_{13}) + p_{31}p_{32}p_{12}+ p_{32}p_{31}(1-p_{12})\\ &=p_{12}p_{13} + p_{21}p_{23} + p_{31}p_{32}\\ &=p_{12}p_{13} + (1-p_{12})p_{23} + (1-p_{13})(1-p_{23})\\ &=p_{12}p_{13} + p_{23}-p_{23}p_{12} + 1-p_{13}-p_{23}+p_{13}p_{23}\\ &=1+p_{12}p_{13} -p_{23}p_{12} + p_{13}+p_{13}p_{23}\\ \end{array} $

Interesting. Unless I made a mistake (which is not unlikely), the sum is not $1$ unless $p_{12}p_{13} -p_{23}p_{12} + p_{13}+p_{13}p_{23} = 0 $ or $p_{23}p_{12} =p_{12}p_{13} + p_{13}+p_{13}p_{23} =p_{13}(1+p_{12}+p_{23}) $.

I don't know whether this is a genuine consistency condition or a result of an error of mine.

Oh well. We can always divide each probability by their sum, making it into a genuine probability.

marty cohen
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