Let $f(x)$ be a polynomial in $x$ With integer coefficient. If for natural numbers $a,b,c$, $f(a)=b, f(b)=c, f(c)=a$ Prove that $a=b=c$.
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1Should it be $f(x)$ be a polynomial in $x$? – Zain Patel Jul 03 '15 at 15:51
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2It seems likely that we are expected to assume $f$ has integer coefficients. – André Nicolas Jul 03 '15 at 15:58
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Yes it is integral coefficients. – Satvik Mashkaria Jul 03 '15 at 16:00
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Exact duplicate of this question. – Bill Dubuque Jul 03 '15 at 16:09
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This is not true: Consider the polynomial $f(x)=-\frac{3 x^2}{2}+\frac{11x}{2}-2$. Then $f(1)=2$, $f(2)=3$, $f(3)=1$.
(Edit: This is the answer to a previous version of the question, which didn't specify that the coefficients must be integers. For a hint or an answer to the modified version, see André Nicolas' answer above or this question.)
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1The question has been modified, but your answer to the previous version is still valuable. It may be a good idea to modify the answer to make clear what it answers. – André Nicolas Jul 03 '15 at 16:19
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Hint: For the modified question, note that $a-b$ divides $f(a)-f(b)$.
So $a-b$ divides $b-c$. Similarly, $b-c$ divides $c-a$ and $c-a$ divides $a-b$.

André Nicolas
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