I'm working through Fulton and Harris's book on Representation theory, and I've just done the exercise where I had to show:
If $\mathfrak{g}$ is a reductive Lie algebra (defined as $Z(\mathfrak{g}) = rad(\mathfrak{g})$) then $[\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$ is semisimple.
The way I did this was to say that $\frac{\mathfrak{g}}{rad(\mathfrak{g})} = \frac{\mathfrak{g}}{Z(\mathfrak{g})}$ is semisimple. So then $\frac{[\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]}{Z(\mathfrak{g})}$ is also semisimple, and if $\mathfrak{a}$ is any abelian ideal of $[\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$ we have that $\frac{\mathfrak{a}}{Z(\mathfrak{g})}$ is an abelian ideal of $\frac{[\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]}{Z(\mathfrak{g})}$, so must be zero.
I want to show $[\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}] \cap Z(\mathfrak{g})$ is zero, so that $\mathfrak{a}$ must be zero.
If anyone can hep me with this step or provide an alternative proof I'd be really grateful, thanks!