The summation from zero to infinity is plus one half, not minus one half. The zeta function is defined as a summation that starts at $n = 1$, and this yields minus one half, therefore the summation that starts at zero should yield plus one half.
Another way to derive this is via the identity:
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}f(k) = \int_0^{\infty} f(x) dx + \int_{-1}^0 S(x) dx$$
where $S(x)$ is the analytic continuation of the partial sum $S(n) = \sum_{k=0}^n f(k)$. This is very simple to prove for convergent series. You can then start with assuming that $S(x)$ is a given function and then you have $f(x) = S(x) - S(x-1)$. Putting $x = 0$ in here and using that $S(0) = f(0)$ then implies that $S(-1) = 0$.
The summation is the limit of $S(x)$ for $x$ to infinity and this should then be equal to the limit of $n$ to infinity of the integral from $n-1$ to $n $ of $S(x)$. The right hand side is a telescoping expression for that.
In case the summation is divergent, the integral on the right hand side should be regularized by cutting it off at an upper limit of $R$ and then omitting all positive powers of $R$ and then taking the limit of $R$ to infinity. Here we appeal to the existence of an analytic continuation without being explicit about it. The idea is then that the function we're summing could be deformed using one or more parameters, and that for different values of those parameters than the one that yields the function that we want to sum, these positive powers would be negative powers, and the integral and summation would converge.
So, for those other values of these hidden parameters, the limit of $R$ to infinity exists. If we then analytically continue the results from there to here, the terms which diverge here are killed there so they should be dead on arrival here.
In this case we have $f(x) = 1$, so $\int_0^R f(x) dx = R$, and we should then disregard this term. We have $S(n) = n+1$, so for all real $x$ we have $S(x) = x+1$. We then find:
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}1 = \int_{-1}^0 (x+1)dx = \frac{1}{2}$$
Yet another method is to use the formula:
$$\int_0^{\infty}\frac{g(x)}{1+x}dx = -\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{dc_k}{dk}\tag{1}$$
where the $c_k$ are given by the series expansion coefficients of $g(x)$:
$$g(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}(-1)^k c_k x^k$$
This is based on Ramanujan's master theorem, and I've explained the derivation of this result in detail here. We can then use this formula to sum series by integrating minus the summand to compute $c_k$, and then we compute the alternating generating function $g(x)$, and then the summation follows from (1).
We should then note that in case of a diverging series, if we obtain a convergent integral expression this way, then for that integral (1) won't be valid, because if it were valid, the summation on the r.h.s. would have to be a convergent one. The argument hat the integral we obtain this way yields the correct regularized sum is then again an analytic continuation argument. We imagine that the function we are summing can be deformed using one or more parameters, and that there exists a domain for these parameters where the summation is convergent and where the procedure to get to (1) yields a valid identity for the summation.
If the integral in (1) is then also an analytic function of the parameters then analytically continuing the result from the domain where the summation converges to the values that yield the diverging summation should then yield the value of the integral that we get by plugging in $g(x)$ obtained directly from the diverging series, if that yields a convergent integral.
So, in this case we have:
$$-\frac{dc_k}{dk} = 1$$
therefore:
$$c_k = k$$
The integration constant is chosen to be zero, as that yields a converging integral. We can then comute the alternating generating function using the geometric series:
$$\frac{1}{1+x} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}x^k$$
Differentiating this yields:
$$-\frac{1}{(1+x)^2} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}k x^{k-1}$$
Multiplying both sides by minus $x$ yields:
$$\frac{x}{(1+x)^2} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}k x^k$$
So, we need to put:
$$g(x) = \frac{x}{(1+x)^2} $$
in (1). This yields the result for the summation as:
$$\int_0^{\infty}\frac{x}{(1+x)^3}dx = \int_1^{\infty}\frac{t-1}{t^3}dt = \frac{1}{2}$$