Lately I've been reading about Polynomial Remainder Theorem from various sources, mainly from the wikipedea article, this post and some high school books. Wikipedea says that if we divide a polynomial $f(x)$ with another polynomial $g(x)$ then
$$f(x)=q(x)g(x) + r(x)\quad \text{and}\quad r(x) =0 \; \text{or}\; \deg(r)<\deg(g)\ \tag{1}$$
Why is the expression for $q(x)$ same for all values of $x$? E.g. suppose $f(x) = x^3 - 12x^2 - 42$ and $g(x) = x-3$ then $q(x)$ might be of form $q(x)=ax^n+bx^{n-1}+cx^{n-2} \cdots$ . For whatever reason the following relation is true,
$$f(x) = x^3 - 12x^2 - 42 = (x-3)(x^2+15x)+3$$ Here why is $a=1$, $b=15$, $c=0$ and $n=2$ always true irrespective of the values $x$ take?
Why is $\deg(r)$ always less than $\deg(q)$? As far as I know things are equivalent to usual Euclid's division, $|r(x)|<|g(x)|$. Now it might be that for any polynomial $r(x)$ to be less than another polynomial $g(x)$, $r(x)'s$ degree has to be less than that of $(g(x)'s$ -- but I don't know why is this true or how I can prove it.
What is the logic behind long division? Why do we keep on taking the reminder in each step? E.g. while dividing $x^3 - 12x^2 - 42$ with $(x-3)$ why is in first step quotient is $x^2$, why not just $x$, why always choose the maximum possible value?
This was about the confusions related to the definition. It is said that in equation $1$ if $g(x)=(x-a)$ then $f(a)=r$, because of $$f(x)=q(x)(x-a) + r \tag{2}$$
But why is equation $2$ true for $x=a$? Here $g(a)=0$ so we can't just perform the Euclid division over $f(x)$. Moreover the expression for equation $2$ with $g(x)$ being $0$ must be something like
$$f(x)=0 q(x)+f(x)$$
That is the reminder should be $f(x)$ itself. Most of the answers on the similar question say that we aren't actually dividing by $0$, we are just figuring out an algebraic identity of sort, $f(x)=(x-a)q(x)+r$. I agree that if we actually multiply $(x-a)$ with $q(x)$ and then add $r$ to it to observe that the identity holds then $f(a)=r$, but what we actually do is Euclid division to find out $q(x)$, which we can't do because we can't divide with $0$. But then I don't understand why does the value of $q(x)$ found with Euclid division under the condition of $x\neq a$ is same as the value found by trial and error by actually multiplying with guessed values of $q(x)$ with $x-a$.
Another answer says equation $2$ is true for $x=a$ because the following relation holds,
$$\begin{eqnarray} f'(a) &=\,& \dfrac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\Bigg|_{\large\, x\,=\,a}\\ \\ {\rm i.e.}\ \ \ f'(a) &=\,& q(a)\ \ {\rm where}\ \ f(x)-f(a) = q(x)(x-a)\end{eqnarray}$$
As far as I know he/she is using the Maan Value Theorem by substituting $x$ for $b$ in the standard equation,
$$ f'(c) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a}$$
Where $x,c \to a$, but we can't take $x=c=b$. So equation (1) might be true for $x \to a$ but not for $x=a$.
X
the indeterminate, and by $x$ a (non-specified) real number that will replace $X$ on evaluating the polynomial at the particular point $x$. Thus one should distinguish a polynomial or a polynomial function from its value at a particular point. – Bernard Jun 23 '15 at 11:12