While reviewing Meaning of finite, countably finite, infinite?, I wondered about $\mathbb N$ vs $\mathbb Q$, both countably infinite, but $|\mathbb Q|$ is clearly much nearer to $|\mathbb R|$ than $|\mathbb N|$, given that between any distinct pair $q_1,q_2\in \mathbb Q$ there is an infinite number of $ r \in (q_1,q_2) \subset \mathbb R$, and vice versa.
This concept has been explained by this answer: there's cardinality, density and measure; all various comparisons of the size of a set.
But can the difference between $\mathbb N$ and $\mathbb Q$ be described by the mapping of $\mathbb N \to \mathbb Q$ not being monotonic?
Having seen the above answer, I assume I'm asking: Is there is a countably infinite set, $S$, that is nowhere dense, but still has not got a mapping from $\mathbb N, M,$ such that $ \forall m,n \in \mathbb N: m\le n \iff M(m)\le M(n) $ (with equality only when $m=n$), for some ordering $\le \text{on } S$?
(EDIT: I changed "not dense" to "nowhere dense".)
By way of example consider mappings of $\mathbb N \to \mathbb Z$. With the normal meaning of $\le$ you can't find a mapping (mostly because you need to change one infinite "end" to "two"). But if you define $x < y$ to mean $|x|<|y|\text{ or } (|x|=|y| \text{ and } x<y)$ again with equality only when $x=y$, you can define a mapping of $n \to (-1)^{n}\left\lfloor{\frac{n+1}{2}}\right\rfloor $.