Older Answer left as extra
If I take you correctly, what you are after are the roots of the polynomial $t^3+t+1$ viewed as an element of $\frac{\mathbb{Z}_2[x]}{(x^3+x+1)}[t]$. Let me name that ideal $I$. You are asking why $x^2+I$ and $x^2+x+1+I$ are roots. Let us just substitute those roots into the polynomial $f(t)=t^3+t+1$, shall we?
\begin{align*}
f(x^2)={}&x^6+x^2+1=x^2(-x^2-x)-x^2+1=-x^4-x^3-x^2+1={} \\
{}={}&x^2+x+x+1-x^2+1=0,
\end{align*}
definitely a root then, and:
\begin{align*}
f(x^2+x+1)={}&(x^2+x+1)^3+x^2+x+1+1=(x^2+x+1)(x^4+x^2+1)+x^2+x={} \\
{}={}&x^6+x^4+x^2+x^5+x^3+x+x^4+x^2+1+x^2+x={} \\
{}={}&x^2(-x^2-x)-x^2-x+x^2+x(-x^2-x)-x-1+x-x^2-x+x^2+1+x^2+x={} \\
{}={}&x^2+x+x+1-x^2-x+x^2+x(-x^2-x)-x-1+x-x^2-x+x^2+1+x^2+x={} \\
{}={}&1-x+x^2-x^2+x+1-x-1+x-x^2-x+x^2+1+x^2+x={} \\
{}={}&-x-1+x-x^2-x+x^2+1+x^2+x=-1-x+1+x^2=-1,
\end{align*}
definitely not a root then. $x$ is the another root, as always in this kind of quotients. As noted by Bernard, the last root is close to the one tried above: it's $x^2+x$:
\begin{align*}
f(x^2+x)={}&(x^2+x)^3+x^2+x+1=(x^2+x)(-x^2-x+x^2)+x^2+x+1={} \\
{}={}&-x^3-x^2+x^2+x+1=-x^3+x+1=x+1+x+1=0.
\end{align*}
Let us now factor the polynomial since we have its three roots:
$$f(t)=(t-x)(t-x^2-x)(t-x^2).$$
In carrying out my calculations, I used the fact that:
\begin{align*}
x^4=x\cdot x^3=x(-x-1)=-x^2-x, && x^3=-x-1, \\
\begin{aligned}
x^6=x^2\cdot x^4={}&x^2(-x^2-x)=-x^4-x^3={} \\
{}={}&x^2+x+x+1=x^2+1
\end{aligned} && \begin{aligned}
x^5={}&x\cdot x^4=x(-x^2-x)={} \\
{}={}&x+1-x^2=x^2+x+1
\end{aligned}
\end{align*}
which is because $x^3+x+1=0$ in your quotient field.
End of old answer which answers actual question, with a little addition
Yes indeed, this is a field, since the polynomial generating $I$ is clearly irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}_2$, as it has no roots. We could have seen that from the start, but now that we have the 3 roots in the quotient we see none of them is in $\mathbb{Z}_2$. Also, this quotient is the splitting field of that polynomial.
$f(x)$ has no roots in $\mathbb{Z}_2$ since $\mathbb{Z}_2=\{0,1\}$, and $f(0)=0^2+0+1=1$ and $f(1)=1^2+1+1=1+1+1=0+1=1$. It is a third-degree polynomial, so having no roots implies being irreducible, as if it were reducible it would have to factor as a first-degree polynomial times a second-degree one, and hence have a root. Being $f$ irreducible, the quotient of $\mathbb{Z}_2[x]$ with respect to $I=(f(x))$ is a field.