Let $A \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times m}$, $B \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times n}$. Can we prove that $AB$ and $BA$ share all nonzero eigenvalues?
Based on comments here, this appears to be possible.
Let $A \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times m}$, $B \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times n}$. Can we prove that $AB$ and $BA$ share all nonzero eigenvalues?
Based on comments here, this appears to be possible.