Let $K$ be a field and $R:=K[X_1,X_2,\dots, X_n]$ for a certain $n\in\mathbb N$. If $I,J,K$ are three ideals of $R$, can we conclude that $I(J\cap K)=IJ\cap IK$?
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no. it doesnt hold in general. – Fang Hung-chien Jun 11 '15 at 14:57
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@Unknown Any counterexample? – Censi LI Jun 11 '15 at 14:58
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This is one of many equivalent characterizations of Prufer domains, e.g. see $(13)$ in this long list. – Bill Dubuque Jun 11 '15 at 15:30
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More generally, if $R$ is a commutative ring with unity and $A,I,J$ are three ideals, then $$ A (I \cap J) \subseteq AI \cap AJ $$ because any element of $A (I \cap J)$ can be simultaneously seen as an element of $AI$ and of $AJ$.
The reverse inclusion holds if $A$ and $X \cap Y$ are coprime because in that case $A$ is coprime with $X$ and $Y$, too, so $$ A (X \cap Y) = A \cap (X \cap Y) = (A \cap X) \cap (A \cap Y) = AX \cap AY $$ I don't think that it should hold in general, but right now I can't think of a counterexample.

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I know several counterexamples in some ill-behaved rings. So I just wonder if it holds in polynomial rings. – Censi LI Jun 11 '15 at 15:03