This is actually not true; $\mathrm {Aut}(\mathbb{Q}(\pi)/\mathbb Q)$ is infinite. In general, if we have a field of rational functions $\mathbb{Q}(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n)$ in indeterminates $x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n$ (for which $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)$ is with $n=1$) the automorphism group of this field over $\mathbb{Q}$ contains the general linear group over $\mathbb{Q}$.
This is a bit easier to see for $\mathbb{Q}[x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n]$. Since this ring is the free commutative $\mathbb{Q}$-algebra on $\{x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n\}$, for any linear transformation $A$ on the vector space spanned by $x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n$ there is a homomorphism of rings $\mathbb{Q}[x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n]\to \mathbb{Q}[x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n]$ given by $x_i\mapsto Ax_i$ for all $i$. Since this is surjective on the degree $1$ polynomials and these generate the ring, this is a surjective homomorphism. If the kernel were nontrivial we'd have a nonzero polynomial $p(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n)$ such that $p(Ax_1,Ax_2,\ldots,Ax_n)=0$. We can use induction on $n$ to show that $p$ is the zero polynomial, which is a contradiction. Thus the automorphism group at least contains the general linear group.
To move this to the field of rational functions, we simply define $A\left(\frac{p}{q}\right)=\frac{Ap}{Aq}$. Once you show that this indeed defines a homomorphism, it follows immediately that it is injective by the fact that the ring is a field, and surjectivity follows from the fact that the image includes all polynomials. Thus in particular your automorphism group is infinite. This is a bit of overkill, but for the case you are considering it means we can send $\pi\mapsto r\pi$ for any nonzero rational $r$ to obtain an automorphism.