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I'm trying to find

$$\int_0^\infty \sin \left( x^2 \right)\,dx$$

by the method of differentiation under the integral sign. The idea is to use differentiation with respect to $t$ on $A(t)$ — defined below — and then let $t$ approach infinity and take the square root to find the Fresnel integral.

Let

$$A(t) = \left( \int_0^t \sin(x^2)\,dx \right)^2$$

$$A'(t) = 2\sin(t^2) \int_0^t \sin(x^2)\,dx$$

Let $x=yt$

$A'(t) = 2\sin(t^2) \int_0^1 \sin(t^2y^2)t\,dy $

$A'(t) = \int_0^1 2t\sin(t^2)\sin(t^2y^2)\,dy $

$A'(t) = \int_0^1 t(\cos(t^2-t^2y^2)-\cos(t^2+t^2y^2))\,dy $

$A'(t) = \int_0^1 t(\cos(t^2(1-y^2))-\cos(t^2(1+y^2)))\,dy $

$A'(t) = \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 \frac{\partial}{\partial t} (\frac{\sin(t^2(1-y^2))}{1-y^2}-\frac{\sin(t^2(1+y^2))}{y^2+1})\,dy $

$A'(t) = \frac{1}{2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}t}\int_0^1 \frac{\sin(t^2(1-y^2))}{1-y^2}-\frac{\sin(t^2(1+y^2))}{y^2+1} \, dy $

By the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus:

$\int A'(t)\,dt + C = A(t)$

If we take the limit as $\lim_{t\to 0}$:

EDIT: $\lim_{t\to 0} \int{A'(t)dt} + C = \lim_{t\to 0}A(t)$

$\lim_{t\to 0} \int{A'(t)dt} = 0$ and $\lim_{t\to 0}A(t) = 0$

So $0 + C = 0$ and $C=0$

Thus, $\int A'(t)\,dt = A(t)$,

But, if we take the limit as $\lim_{t\to \infty}$:

EDIT: $\lim_{t\to \infty} \int{A'(t)dt} = \lim_{t\to \infty}A(t)$

I haven't been able to confirm it, but I am pretty sure from numerical calculations that $\lim_{t\to \infty} \int{A'(t)dt} = 0$.

But we know that $\lim_{t\to \infty}A(t)$ should be $\pi/8$.

And $0\neq \pi/8$.

I may have made a simple algebra or calculus mistake, but I haven't caught it.

You help is very much appreciated.

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    I didn't read through the middle of your argument, but $\lim A'(t)=0$ does not imply $\lim A(t)=0$. Why would it, when you can add a constant to $A(t)$ and change the second limit but not the first? Indeed if the limit $\lim A(t)$ exists at all, then we should expect $\lim A'(t)=0$ (see this question). – anon May 22 '15 at 02:40
  • The idea is to figure out the constant by taking the limit as t approaches 0. The constant should be the same no matter where you are taking the limit, so I believe this argument should hold. As t approaches 0, both $A](t)$ and $A(t)$ approach zero, so I concluded that C = 0.

    I believe that C should equal $\pi/2$, but I don't think that step is the mistake (please correct me if I'm wrong).

    – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 02:49
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    Consider $A(t)=\int_0^t f(\tau)d\tau$ for any other nice $f$ for which $\int_0^\infty f(\tau)d\tau$ converges. According to you, since $A(0)=0$ and $A'(0)=0$, we must have $\lim A(t)=0$, i.e. every integral $\int_0^\infty f(\tau)d\tau$ is zero! There has to be logic that connects your facts to your conclusions, otherwise you have a non sequitur. – anon May 22 '15 at 02:54
  • I'm not sure I understand your logic, as $A'(0) \neq 0 $ for all A(t) for which $\int_{0}^{\infty} f(t)dt$. If we consider the Gaussian function, $f(x) = e^{-x^2/2}$, we can do the same procedure and achieve the right result (full analysis on pages 4-5 of this pdf). – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 03:09
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    Sorry, I needed to add the condition $f(0)=0$, you're right. Anyway, in your new revision, you've written the correct equation $\int_0^t A'(\tau)d\tau+C=A(t)$, but then your next equation is $\lim A'(t)+C=\lim A(t)$. Where did the $\int$ sign go? – anon May 22 '15 at 03:10
  • You can't take a limit of an indefinite integral, and yet you have $\lim\int$ written a few times in your argument. – anon May 22 '15 at 03:17
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    Why do you have $y^2-1$ in one of the denominators? Shouldn't it be $1-y^2$? – anon May 22 '15 at 05:40
  • @whacka Yes, it should be $1-y^2$. Unfortunately, the negation doesn't resolve the contradiction because the term still approaches 0 as t approaches 0 or $\infty$. – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 21:36

3 Answers3

1

I stopped reading when I got to the first mistake. When you set $x=ty$, you forgot to put $dx=tdy$ in your integral.

Ted Shifrin
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  • Sorry I did that on paper and forgot to include it when writing the post. The next step (antidifferentiation) is correct taking into account $dx=tdy$ (I believe). – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 02:46
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You cannot use $\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}A'(t)=0$ to conclude $\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}A(t)=0$. In fact, something of the opposite is true: for any limit $\lim\limits_{t\to\infty} A(t)=L$ of a nice function $A$, its existence implies $\lim_{t\to\infty}A'(t)=0$, no matter what the original limit $L=\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}A(t)$ is. Indeed, adding a constant to the function $A(t)$ will alter the value of the limit $L=\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}A(t)$ but it will not change the fact that $\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}A'(t)=0$.

It is also not true that analyzing the behavior of a function $A(t)$ and its derivative $A'(t)$ near the value $t=0$ will tell us what happens for $A(t)$ as we take $t\to\infty$. For instance, $A(t)=A'(t)=0$ is completely possible even if $A(t)$ is increasing on the interval $(0,\infty)$. This is a local-global distinction: what happens locally does not generally what happens globally. There are certain exceptions, for instance with an analytic function, but even with analytic functions we would have to specify all of the values $A(0)$, $A'(0)$, $A''(0)$, $A'''(0)$, $\cdots$ in order to force any determination of what happens to $A(t)$ as we take $t\to\infty$.

In particular, suppose we accept the logic that $A(0)=A'(0)=0$ implies $A(t)\to0$ as $t\to\infty$, which we know is not true by considering for instance $A(t)$ increasing on $(0,\infty)$. If we define the function $A(t)=\int_0^t f(\tau)d\tau$ for any nice function $f$ for which $\int_0^\infty f(\tau)d\tau$ converges and $f(0)=0$, this logic would imply that any and all integrals $\int_0^\infty f(\tau)d\tau$ (with $f(0)=0$) are zero!

If you want an explicit example, consider $f(\tau)=\tau^2e^{-\tau}$. Then $f(0)=0$, and $A(0)=0$ but $A(t)=\int_0^t \tau^2e^{-\tau}d\tau\to \Gamma(3)=2$ as $t\to\infty$.

anon
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  • So sorry for my mistake. I wrote it down correctly on my paper and copied it incorrectly into the post. Please see my edits on the original post -- I unfortunately still do not know the error. I completely understand that the limit of $A'(t)$ does not equal the limit of $A(t)$, as the limit of $A'(t)$ for any convergent improper integral will always be 0. I meant to be talking about $\int{A'(t)dt}$ the whole time. It does make sense that $\int{A'(t)dt} + C = A(t)$ for some C, right. – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 03:15
  • @DeltaEffects When you say you've numerically investigated $\int A'(t)dt$, you mean $\int_0^t A(\tau)d\tau$ right? Like I said above, you cannot take a limit of an indefinite integral, you should be writing definite integrals. – anon May 22 '15 at 03:28
  • When taking the limit of $\int{A'(t)dt}$, I'm taking the limit as t approaches infinity of a function of t (which has a definite integral with respect to y inside of it), so I think it makes sense. I've investigated the following:

    $\lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \int A'(t)dt = \lim_{t \rightarrow \infty}\int_0^1 \frac{\sin(t^2(1-y^2))}{y^2-1}-\frac{\sin(t^2(1+y^2))}{y^2+1}dy$

    – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 03:38
  • Do not write $\lim_{t\to\infty}\int A'(t)dt$. The notation $\int A'(t)dt$ does not refer to a unique function of $t$, it refers to an entire class of functions of $t$. – anon May 22 '15 at 03:40
  • Thanks for the advice. Next time, I'll write out the full integral or use different notation. I am trying to convey the limit as t approaches infinity of the definite integral with respect to y above, as the constant obtained by antidifferentiation of $A'(t)$ appears to equal 0. – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 03:50
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I don't think your approach will work. But if you know that

$\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=\frac{\sqrt \pi}{2}$, then you can do a contour integral

$\int _{c}e^{-z^{2}}dz$, where $c$ is the line $0$ to $r$, then counterclockwise from $r$ to $re^{i\pi /4}$, and finally back along the line from $re^{i\pi /4}$ to $0$. This is a closed contour and the integrand is analytic inside $c$, so the integral must be $0$. Calculating the integrals along the pieces of the contour, letting $r\rightarrow \infty$ will give you the result.

Matematleta
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  • I haven't learned much about contour integration, so I'm trying to work out the integral with only real methods. I know this method works on $\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{\frac{x^2}{2}}$ (can link a source if you would like), so I can't figure out why it doesn't work here. I'll be sure to revisit this method when I have more tools at my disposal! – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 04:04
  • Read carefully the other comments here. They pretty much show your method won't work I think. As far as I know, these types of integrals are done by jumping into the complex plane and doing contour integration,The integral shown at the start of my answer is kind of a special case. By doing a trick and switching to polar coordinates, you get the answer without resorting to complex integration. But for sines and cosines of the type youhave, I think contour integration is the way to go. By the way, the integral you are showing is divergent! – Matematleta May 22 '15 at 04:09
  • Sorry I forgot to negate the exponent: $\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}$. There's no doubt that it can be done with contour integration -- I'm just trying to figure out why this way isn't working. It worked well for the Gaussian and the answers here (while they have addressed a number mistakes I made in typing my method) have not shown definitively why the method (or one of the steps) fails. – DeltaEffects May 22 '15 at 04:13