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This might be a very stupid, and possibly philosophical question, but attempt to apply mathematics to everything plus inspired by this question caused me to ask this question

  1. Is there any mathematical object that has been proved to exist but cannot be described in words?
  2. If the answer is yes, are these things in general meaningful to study in mathematics (that is, can be applied to prove some theorems or demonstrate some additional properties of some mathematical objects (or even a possible real life application)?

The closest example I have found so far to question 1 is the Hamel basis in $\mathbb{R}^\infty$ which via Zorn's Lemma is shown to be exist but no known way to actually construct it explicitly. But we still able to describe some of its properties, such as

  1. It is uncountable

  2. It is a basis of $\mathbb{R}^\infty$

There are two reasons that motivates me to ask this question

  1. Any mathematical objects I have read so far, no matter how abstract, can still be described by some sentence and definition statements that follows, or at least written as a relation between two or more mathematical objects. For example:

In mathematics, a non-measurable set is a set which cannot be assigned a meaningful "size". The mathematical existence of such sets is construed to shed light on the notions of length, area and volume in formal set theory.

Thus I am wondering if there exist counterexamples that cannot even be described in words.

  1. Any two life experience cannot be related to each other in general by some mathematical relations. For example in real life "the experience of seeing the color red" is often specific to different people but there is no way to tell how it is different. But experience is vague and not a mathematical object. Thus I am interested in a mathematical 'analogue' of experience.

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Edit: Having read this link as suggested by the comments and answers (although I am not sure if I fully understood it), I guess one way to define "describable in words" can be phrased as the following

Consider some mathematical objects $A$, $B$, $C$, etc., not necessary countable, living in some mathematical object $\mathbf{M}$ (More general than a category or a set). There are relations $\phi_\lambda$ where $\lambda \in G$ ($G$ is a mathematical object, not necessary countable) that given something $m$ in $\mathbf{M}$ one can say for example:

$$\phi_1(m)\text{ relates m to A, B}$$ $$\phi_x(m)\text{ relates m to A}$$ $$\phi_{\delta}(m)\text{ relates m to {A,B}}$$ $$\phi_{\omega_0}(m)\text{ relates m to $\emptyset$}$$ etc.

where the relation does not necessary generate a unique output or a set of outputs nor structure preserving for each mathematical object, thus not a morphism in general.

An identity relation can be defined as follows (there are many identity relations because $\mathbf{M}$ is not necessary a group) :

\begin{equation} \mathbf{id}_0(\cdot) \text{ satisfies "has the same property as $\cdot$"} \end{equation}

A concrete example:

$\mathbf{M}$ is the field of complex numbers $\mathbb{C}$, with

$\phi_\lambda$ are some properties of complex numbers. e.g.

$$\phi_1(\cdot) \text{ is $\{\cdot \text{ such that } i\cdot-1=0 \}$}$$ $$\phi_2(\cdot) \text{ is $\{\cdot \text{ such that } i\cdot \}$}$$ $$\phi_3(\cdot) \text{ is $\{a \text{ such that } a^2=\cdot \}$}$$ $$\phi_4(\cdot) \text{ is $\{\cdot \text{ such that } i\cdot \}$}$$

Then consider an element $z\in \mathbb{C}$

$$\phi_3(z)=\sqrt{z}$$ $$\phi_1(z)=-i$$ $$\phi_2 \circ \phi_1(z)=1$$

etc.

Another example:

$\mathbf{M}$ is a set of objects. Then suppose

$$\phi_o(\cdot) \text{ $\cdot$ satisfy "is vacuously true for a", where a satisfy the property "for all ..."}$$

Then

$$\phi_o(m)=\emptyset\text{ or }\text{"$\left\{\mathbf{v}_1\right\}$ is an orthogonal set for all $\mathbf{v_1}\neq\mathbf{0}$"}$$

So my question 1 boils down to:

Any example of at least one mathematical object $q$ in $M$ such that the only relation (as defined above) that exists for it is the identity relation as defined above (that is, cannot be described in terms of other mathematical objects except by the statement "has the same properties as itself"?), or put in terms of maths

$q$ are objects such that $$\phi_\lambda(q)=q$$ implies $$\phi_\lambda \text{ is } \mathbf{id_0}$$

Secret
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    See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computable_number and http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/462790/are-there-any-examples-of-non-computable-real-numbers – Chappers May 16 '15 at 16:25
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    What do you mean with 'described in words'? – Git Gud May 16 '15 at 16:27
  • I found it hard myself to define "described in words" since it is not really a mathematical object (I think...?) But Gregory Grant have gave a good example on at least one aspect on what it means – Secret May 16 '15 at 16:35
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    PS I really wish there's an option to accept more than one answer. This is like the 3rd question without an accepted answer since there is more than one which works... – Secret May 16 '15 at 16:44
  • It depends what you mean by “has been proved to exist.” Proved from what starting set of axioms? – Steve Kass May 16 '15 at 17:03
  • any axioms that is mainstream and used by the mathematics community, Axiom of Choice included – Secret May 16 '15 at 17:39
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    If you can't describe it in words, how are you referring to it when you prove that it exists? – Qiaochu Yuan May 16 '15 at 17:40
  • I think he means you can prove existence but you can't find a construction. – math_lover May 16 '15 at 17:42
  • Not only do you need to specify what you mean by "described", you need to define "exists". The intuitionist point of view is that when we're talking about mathematical objects, if you can't describe it, it doesn't exist - that imaginary objects are only conjured into existence by our describing them explicitly. From that point of view, what you're looking for is impossible. – Jack M May 16 '15 at 21:16
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    Every time questions like this come up, people immediately diagonalize over sentences of the language to conclude there are countably many definable objects, and it's impossible to get them to stop. If ZFC is consistent, then there must be models of ZFC where everything in the model actually is definable, even though it seems like there should only be countably many definable objects. Please read Joel David Hamkins's more detailed answer on MathOverflow. – user2357112 May 17 '15 at 02:04
  • Question have been made more concise with the help of the information in the mathoverflow link provided – Secret May 17 '15 at 07:05
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    PS I really wish there's an option to accept more than one answer. This is like the 3rd question without an accepted answer since there is more than one which works... This is definitly not the way StackExchange works. Do not leave all questions open if you find more than one useful!! Accept one and upvote and comment on the others! Not accepting means: This question has not acceptable answer. – TaW May 17 '15 at 14:15
  • While there isn't any answer to the refined question (edited 7 hours ago) yet, probably due to being so late in figuring out how to ask this more correctly, I owe user2357112 and Gregory Grant a gratitude since the answers and links they provided help me to clarify my own question thus making the refinement possible. Gregory answer would have nailed the (refined) question if not because of the ZFC definability issue outlined by Joel David (he have nailed the original unfortunately vague question). I also upvoted on some of the answers that also quite addressed the question, as adviced – Secret May 17 '15 at 14:46
  • The major issue when I ask soft questions is often the question itself is so big that I don't have enough math background to formulate it properly (cause I am still undergrad), which is why the "correct question" often appeared so late after numerous answer have been given and people become confused on guessing the vague terms that I struggle to define rigorously. And question often have some sort of "lifetime" which after some time has passed, it will be "buried" and become less likely to have new answers, thus when I finallly get the question right, it is often on the brink of closure or – Secret May 17 '15 at 14:53
  • being buried so much that it is not as easily stumbled upon by other users thus the correct/clarified question is often left unanswered as a result. Things were also made more difficult as I cannot ask that refined question as anew question else it will be labelled as duplicate – Secret May 17 '15 at 14:55
  • There're mathematical objects that are difficult to visualize... – DVD May 19 '15 at 22:21
  • A chance discovery lead me here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_identity $$$$ and then suddenly I realise the question I am actually asking is a philosophical question pulled into the context of maths $$$$ Now it is clear: The question is asking for a concrete example of a mathematical object $M$ such that $$M\equiv M$$ and no other properties

    But it is trivial to define such mathematical object, just let a mathematical object $S$ that obeys $S\equiv S$

    However, is there concrete (named) examples of S, and are they useful since they have no other properties other than $S\equiv S$?

    – Secret Jul 16 '15 at 07:14
  • Yes, there are such mathematical objects, but I have no words to describe those to you. You just have to take my word on this. – amWhy Jan 07 '18 at 22:14

5 Answers5

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You'd have to be more precise about what you mean by "describable in words". But you could argue that some irrational numbers can be described in words, like $\pi$ is the ratio of the circumference to the diameter of a circle. So if you consider each real number a mathematical object, then we could never possibly describe all of them because the set of things we can describe in language is necessarily countable, there are only a countable number of ways to assemble letters into words into sentences. But there are uncountably many real numbers. So inevitably most of them could never be described.

The reals are describable as a set, but you cannot describe each and every one of them in a way that distinguishes their individuality. Incidentally we can describe each and every element of $\mathbb N$ individually, because every natural number can be represented by a unique finite sequence of characters in the set $\{0,1,\dots,9\}$. The same cannot be said of $\mathbb R$.

Gregory Grant
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    +1 for it is not clear what's meant with "describable in words"; – Stephan Kulla May 16 '15 at 16:31
  • @tampis Thank you, owe you one – Gregory Grant May 16 '15 at 16:34
  • With one sentence "A rational number is a fraction $\tfrac ab$ with $a\in\mathbb Z$ and $b\in\mathbb N$" you describe countable many numbers. So maybe all reals are "describable", because there might be sentences which describe uncountable many objects... But there is still the problem, that it is not known, what "describable in words" shall mean... – Stephan Kulla May 16 '15 at 16:34
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    The reals are describable as a set, but you cannot describe each and every one of them in a way that distinguishes their individuality. – Gregory Grant May 16 '15 at 16:35
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    Incidentally we can describe each and ever element of $\mathbb N$ individually, because every natural number can be represented by a unique finite sequence of characters in the set ${0,1,\dots,9}$. The same cannot be said of $\mathbb R$. – Gregory Grant May 16 '15 at 17:08
  • i think this answer nailed down the question. It provides a proof that there exist individual numbers that can never be described by words. And we can't know any of them! – Héctor May 16 '15 at 18:27
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    You can describe the individual real numbers with infinitely long sentences. – Matt Samuel May 16 '15 at 19:01
  • @MattSamuel No you can't. Go ahead and try to describe $\pi$ that way. Let me know when you've finished. – Gregory Grant May 16 '15 at 19:13
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    Um, simply list the digits. One word for each digit. Why should I have to finish? It's an infinitely long sentence. Taken as a whole it describes all of the digits of pi. Note I never claimed this was practical or anything. – Matt Samuel May 16 '15 at 19:16
  • You can't list the digits, you can only list finitely many of them. We know $\pi$ has a unique decimal expansion, but that doesn't mean you've described it "in words". "In words" obviously means in a finite number of words. If not then this question has no meaning, we might as well allow uncountable length words too, which is reductio ad absurdum – Gregory Grant May 16 '15 at 19:21
  • This is the best twelve lines answer I have read here in months. Congratulations! – Christian Blatter May 16 '15 at 20:28
  • @ChristianBlatter Thank you, very generous – Gregory Grant May 16 '15 at 21:55
  • There is a difference between naming an object and describing an object. There might be too many to name all of them but if was given any one or ten of them I would still be able to describe them. Each one is individually describable, you just can't name every single one in the group. – CJ Dennis May 17 '15 at 00:30
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    We can't say that there are countably many definable objects, because we can't actually construct the correspondence between a definition and the object it defines. If we could, we could do things like define the lowest undefinable ordinal. See Joel David Hamkins's more detailed answer on MathOverflow. – user2357112 May 17 '15 at 01:41
  • "So if you consider each real number a mathematical object, [...]. But there are uncountably many real numbers.": This mixes our external notion of countability and the uncountability of $\Bbb R$ within a model of ZFC. In a countable model of ZFC, there are only countably many reals from the outside, yet the model itself can distinguish the cardinality of natural numbers and reals. You could argue that there are only finitely many natural numbers with the same reasoning: suppose there is a natural number that is not describable with fewer than twenty English words. (...) – zarathustra May 17 '15 at 09:39
  • (...) Consider the least of them. Then this number can be described as "the least natural number that is not describable with fewer than twenty English words", and this sentence has less than twenty words, which is a contradiction. Therefore, there are only finitely many natural numbers. (And now I see that @user2357112 already raised an objection. Don't mind me.) – zarathustra May 17 '15 at 09:39
  • @GregoryGrant He never said how many words. Cantor used to post blog posts that had a word count of $\aleph_3$. – Christopher King May 17 '15 at 10:45
  • @zarathustra This is a fallacious argument, you can't use "the least natural number that is not describable with fewer than twenty English words" to describe another number after exhausting all possible 20 word sentences, because it only takes one word to describe any natural number. Therefore, asking for the least natural number with that property is like asking for the smallest real number greater than zero and using it to derive a contradiction. You can't derive a contradiction from something that doesn't exist. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 11:03
  • I didn't say my argument was correct, I was doing an analogy. You are comparing cardinalities that don't live in the same universe, that was my point. – zarathustra May 17 '15 at 11:15
  • @zarathustra Thanks for the analogy but I don't see how it is analogous to my argument. I don't understand what you mean by "comparing cardinalities that don't live in the same universe". Please elaborate. If the OP allowed infinitely long "descriptions" then I agree I have not answered his question. But he has yet to make that clarification and I think it's not a bad assumption that he meant finite descriptions. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 11:20
  • You say that the "number of ways to assemble letters into words into sentences" is countable (it is indeed countable if we have a finite alphabet, but countable here refers to countability in the mathematical background), and compare that to the cardinality of the reals (which is not countable, according to any model of ZFC). But from "the outside", one can have countably many reals, as it must be the case in a countable model of ZFC. – zarathustra May 17 '15 at 11:44
  • @zarathustra Thanks for the clarifications. I still don't quite get it, I will have to leave this to the philosophers. But I seem to recall a basically identical argument to show there must be theorems we cannot state or prove. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 11:47
  • By this same reasoning, there are some numbers that are not computable. – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft May 17 '15 at 14:16
  • Thanks Danny, this is fascinating stuff. I usually don't think about these kinds of questions because it makes my head spin. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 14:20
  • This is an excellent answer which gets at (what I think is) the core of the matter: we use words to describe collections of mathematical objects, but we cannot describe each element of every collection by words. To those who are saying "Just use infinitely many words" I say: I think by ignoring the distinction between finite descriptions and infinite descriptions you are throwing out most of what makes the question interesting and natural. A reasonable -- not too conservative -- definition of a mathematical object is something which can be described by a set of words in, say, ${0,1}$. – Pete L. Clark May 17 '15 at 17:44
  • Could you justify your statement that we "cannot describe each and every [real number] in a way that distinguishes their individuality"? Note that this statement does not follow from Cantor's diagonal argument. – Trevor Wilson May 17 '15 at 20:09
  • @TrevorWilson I'm assuming a "description" is achieved as a finite string from a finite alphabet. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 20:17
  • That is my assumption too. Nevertheless, that the statement that we "cannot describe each and every [real number] in a way that distinguishes their individuality" does not follow from Cantor's diagonal argument, as I explain in the linked answer. So how can you justify it? – Trevor Wilson May 17 '15 at 20:31
  • @TrevorWilson I'm not using Cantor's diagonalization argument because I'm not saying a real number has, or does not have, the property of being describable in some absolute sense. I just said you cannot assign finite descriptions to all of them in a way that distinguishes them all. That's not a deep statement, it's like saying the set of decimal numbers that terminate do not constitute all of $\mathbb R$. You are endowing my statement with more than I was saying, in order to shoot it down. There's a name for that kind of logical fallacy, I believe it is called making a straw man argument. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 20:45
  • @TrevorWilson In other words if we tried to describe in finite terms all the real numbers individually we'd run out of definitions. But that is totally different from saying a real number is definable, or not, in some absolute sense. You need to assume the latter to play the logic games leading to contradictions. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 20:51
  • Sorry, I didn't mean to make a straw man argument, I was only trying to save some effort for both of us by anticipating a common error (which I still suspect that you may be making.) In your comment you talk about "assigning" descriptions to objects, which I agree you cannot do in the case of the real numbers. My point is that you cannot rule out the possibility that, for every real number, there is some (finite) description that defines it, even though there is no such assignment. – Trevor Wilson May 17 '15 at 20:55
  • @TrevorWilson Sure let's say we assigned all possible finite descriptions to real numbers. We could decide to describe a number that has been left undescribed by recycling a description. So every real number can be described, just not at the same time. We could never describe all real numbers simultaneously, if we tried to describe all real numbers we'd always have some left over. What you are talking about is deep and I was trying to just extract a basic notion that I thought got towards the OP's question, though I may be wrong, this is not really my forte'. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 20:58
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    My point is that you cannot take for granted the existence of a surjection (an "assignment") from descriptions to real numbers, mapping each description (coded as a natural number, say) to the unique real number that it describes. The problem is more readily apparent if, instead of real numbers, we consider ordinals (of which there are also uncountably many.) Naively, one might say that not all ordinals are definable, because there are only countably many definable ordinals. But then by considering "the least undefinable ordinal" as the definition of an ordinal, one obtains a contradiction. – Trevor Wilson May 17 '15 at 21:11
  • @TrevorWilson Maybe you're right, we can't seem to agree and I don't really want to think about it any more right now, this really has no bearing on the math that really interests me. I probably should never have chimed in to begin with. – Gregory Grant May 17 '15 at 23:18
  • @TrevorWilson Gregory is not making any argument along the fallacious lines you suggest. And your suggestion that something can be a description of a number, even when there is not any number that it could be said to be a description of, is a bit hard to swallow, but also irrelevant. Go ahead and throw out all the "invalid" descriptions that are troubling you, and the remaining list of all valid descriptions will still clearly be countable, and Gregory's original point holds: Many numbers necessarily remain undescribed, simply because there are uncountably many of them. – Matt May 18 '15 at 10:25
  • @Matt Your argument only works when restricted to definability over some fixed structure. For definability over the universe $V$ itself, it can fail, because the collection of "valid descriptions" (by which I mean formulas in the language of set theory as coded by natural numbers, or by finite strings of symbols, if you prefer, which are satisfied by a unique real number,) as well as the correspondence between valid descriptions and the real numbers they define, may fail to be definable classes. If they were definable classes, then they would be countable sets, and the argument would work. – Trevor Wilson May 18 '15 at 15:48
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    @Matt ...but there is no reason to expect that they would be. Please see Joel David Hamkins' answer here, since he does a better job of explaining these things than I seem to be doing. – Trevor Wilson May 18 '15 at 15:49
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Anything coming from the axiom of choice really. Such as the well ordering of the reals. Is there a known well ordering of the reals?

  • Of course, we've also proved that "there is a well-ordering of the reals" is independent of ZF - which, to some degree, means, "we can't actually describe a well-ordering, so we took the existence of one as an axiom, because it suits us even though we can't prove it from other principles." – Milo Brandt May 17 '15 at 04:37
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    It is consistent with $\mathsf{ZFC}$ that there is a definable well-ordering of the reals. For example, it follows from $\mathsf{ZFC} + V = L$ (which is consistent relative to $\mathsf{ZFC}$.) – Trevor Wilson May 17 '15 at 20:12
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We can do it using set theory. The number of definable objects is countable, but the number of things that exist is uncountable. So something exists which isn't definable.

[edit]

Interestingly, you can't express definability in ZFC, in ZFC. If you try to, you get the following contradiction: https://mathoverflow.net/a/204794/1682.

wlad
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  • What do you mean by "definable"? The real numbers, which are uncountable, are considered a definable set. – chepner May 16 '15 at 18:22
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    @chepner I believe in the case of the real numbers, "definable" would refer to the fact that the set itself is defined by a formula, not that every element in that set is definable (which is not the case for the real numbers, since they are uncountable). So there are real numbers that can't be defined, even if the set containing all real numbers can be. – Frxstrem May 16 '15 at 18:47
  • Again, define "defined". I'm thinking of something like Chaitin's constant, which is well-defined but not computable. – chepner May 16 '15 at 18:50
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    @chepner There is a real number which is not defined in the language of ZFC, in the sense that there is no formula which describes only that object. – wlad May 16 '15 at 19:27
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    This answer is not quite right: see http://mathoverflow.net/a/44129/1682 or http://mathoverflow.net/a/204794/1682 – Trevor Wilson May 17 '15 at 05:15
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    @TrevorWilson Very interesting. That means you need something that can express "definable in ZFC", and ZFC itself clearly can't without being inconsistent. This is worth an edit. – wlad May 17 '15 at 11:10
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To give another example from non-standard analysis (i.e. analysis with infinitesimals):

In non-standard analysis you extend the set of reals in a similar way you extend $\mathbb Q$ to $\mathbb R$ with Cauchy sequences:

  1. You take the set of all real sequences.
  2. You define a equivalence relation on the set of sequences. Two sequences $(x_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ and $(y_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ are equivalent if $x_n=y_n$ "for almost all $n\in\mathbb N$".

To define the concept "for almost all $n\in\mathbb N$" so called ultra filter are used, which existence can be shown with the axiom of choice. Until now no constructable proof is known. So you can show that

  • The equivalence class of $(\tfrac 1n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ will be an infinitesimal, i.e. a positive nonzero number smaller than each $q\in\mathbb Q^{+}$.
  • The equivalence class of $(n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ will be infinitely big.

But you will not know, whether the equivalence class of the sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,\ldots)$ represents 0 or 1.

(Note: What $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,\ldots)$ is, depends on the taken ultra filter. There are some, where this sequence represents 0 and some where the sequence represents 1).

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Things that are not describable in words exist as disturbances, obstacles to our understanding of the world, until we make them describable, i.e. until we find a conceptual metaphor rich enough to bring them to existence in language, as well as in conception. This is the adventure of science. In the history of mathematics this is particularly evident. There was once a time when irrational numbers weren't "describable in words". Now they are taught to children.

Are there objects that can keep resisting our attempts to tame them? I think there are, and some of the other answers tried to explore some of these "occurrences". More than once a mathematician was able to demonstrate things s/he couldn't convince him/herself of. It can be argued that these objects are part of our ordinary experience of the world, and we just don't mind their presence. This ineffable dimension of being is what some philosophers call the Event, or the Real.

Some say that modern science has recently found unsurpassed limits in its ability to digest the abnormalities it encounters, limits it can no longer expect to negotiate. And yet, it keeps describing new things. In words, of course. And also designating them by symbols, or creating images of them.

Will there always be objects that are indescribable in words, waiting to be "domesticated"? Now, that is a very interesting philosophical problem.

amWhy
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    This post reminds me of a joke: Dean, to the physics department. "Why do I always have to give you guys so much money, for laboratories and expensive equipment and stuff. Why couldn't you be like the math department - all they need is money for pencils, paper and waste-paper baskets. Or even better, like the philosophy department. All they need are pencils and paper." – Benjamin Lindqvist May 17 '15 at 09:30